Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach, 6th Edition International Edition by David Barlow – Test Bank
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Sample Test
CHAPTER 3: ASSESSING AND DIAGNOSING PSYCHOPATHOLOGY
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The
systematic evaluation of psychological, biological, and social factors in a
person with a possible mental disorder is known as clinical ________________.
2. assessment
3. interpretation
4. validation
5. standardization
ANS:
A
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
2. The
process of determining whether an individual’s symptoms meet the criteria for a
specific psychological disorder is called _____________.
3. prognosis
4. diagnosis
5. classification
6. analysis
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
3. The
process of clinical assessment is psychopathology has been equated to using a
_________ to determine the source of the problem.
4. funnel
5. hose
6. bucket
7. plow
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
4. In
order to be useful, assessment techniques should be based on _______________.
5. beliefs
6. attitudes
7. evidence
8. assumptions
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
5. Typically,
the first part of the assessment process is to
6. conduct
psychological testing to assess the problem.
7. determine
a diagnosis and rule out other alternatives.
8. discuss
with the client the various therapeutic interventions that are possible.
9. have
the client describe the major difficulties he/she is having.
ANS:
D
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
6. In
the first interview with Frank, a patient described in the textbook, he stated
that he had been having intrusive thoughts that he tried to prevent by
performing certain movements. Based on this information, you might predict that
Frank would be diagnosed with _____________.
7. major
depressive disorder
8. obsessive-compulsive
disorder
9. a
personality disorder
10.
schizophrenia
ANS:
B
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
7. A
measurement which is consistent is considered to be _____________.
8. valid
9. reliable
10.
standardized
11.
accurate
ANS:
B
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
8. If
the short version of a test yields the same results as a longer version, then
you could conclude that the brief version had _________ validity.
9. concurrent
10.
divergent
11.
predictive
12.
excessive
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
9. Clifton
had been experiencing a number of psychological issues, so he decided to go to
a psychiatrist to see what was wrong. Dr. A told him he had major depressive
disorder. He decided to seek a second opinion. Dr. B diagnosed him with
generalized anxiety disorder. Wanting yet another opinion, he went to Dr. C who
told him he was obsessive-compulsive. This demonstrate poor _______________.
10.
test-retest reliability
11.
concurrent validity
12.
descriptive validity
13.
inter-rater reliability
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
10.
The process of clinical assessment results in narrowing the
focus to
11.
concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant.
12.
consider a broad range of problems.
13.
cover all possible problems.
14.
concentrate on all problem areas equally.
ANS:
A
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
11.
In order to develop useful standards for a test, it is important
to use a normative group that consists of a
12.
small group of people who are very similar to each other.
13.
large group of people who all share a key characteristic.
14.
large group of very diverse people.
15.
small group that differs from the population at large.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
12.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic concepts
that help determine the value of a psychological assessment procedure?
13.
Reliability
14.
Subjectivity
15.
Validity
16.
Standardization
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
13.
Treminitia, who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of
appetite, received different diagnoses from several psychologists. In terms of assessment,
this indicates a problem with _______.
14.
reliability
15.
subjectivity
16.
validity
17.
standardization
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
14.
In terms of psychological assessment, which of the following
describes the concept of validity?
15.
Two or more “raters” get the same answers
16.
An assessment technique is consistent across different measures
17.
Scores are used as a norm for comparison purposes
18.
An assessment technique measures what it is designed to measure
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
15.
Mr. J., a 40-year-old recent immigrant to the United States
comes from a working-class background and is just learning to speak English. He
applies for a job and is given a test. His score is compared to others who have
taken the test, mostly young college graduates whose native language is
English. Mr. J. thinks this is unfair. In fact, this is an issue of __________.
16.
reliability
17.
classification
18.
validity
19.
standardization
ANS:
D
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
16.
A clinical interview should be based on information from the
client’s ___________.
17.
past life
18.
family history
19.
current life
20.
all of the above
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
-72
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
17.
In trying to understand and help an individual with a
psychological problem, the psychologist will obtain detailed information about
the person’s life as part of a _____________.
18.
physical exam
19.
clinical interview
20.
mental status exam
21.
brain scan
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
18.
As part of a psychological assessment, a mental status exam is
used to find out how a person thinks, feels, and behaves; its primary purpose,
however, is to determine
19.
if a psychological disorder might be present.
20.
what type of treatment should be used.
21.
which medication would be most effective.
22.
whether the individual also has a medical condition.
ANS:
A
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
19.
Observing appearance and behavior during a mental status exam
20.
is simply done to give the appearance that the clinician is
paying attention.
21.
rarely yields useful information.
22.
can yield clues regarding the presence of certain disorders.
23.
may just confuse the diagnostic process.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
20.
In a mental status exam, a psychologist evaluates an
individual’s thought processes by
21.
asking the person to read aloud.
22.
listening to what the person says.
23.
reading what the person has written.
24.
evaluating the person’s dreams.
ANS:
B
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
21.
When Abernathy went to a psychologist for the first time, the
clinician asked him what the date was, what time it was, what year was it, and
where they were. Which category of a mental status exam do these questions
cover?
22.
Thought processes
23.
Appearance and behavior
24.
Sensorium
25.
Intellectual functioning
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
22.
Determining mood and affect is an important part of the mental
status exam. Although both of these terms refer to feeling states of the
individual, it would be correct to say that mood is more _____________ than
affect.
23.
pervasive
24.
severe
25.
changeable
26.
frequent
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
23.
A mental status exam covers all of the following categories
EXCEPT ___________.
24.
intellectual functioning
25.
appearance
26.
behavior
27.
physical symptoms
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
24.
In regard to a mental status exam, which of the following
questions is NOT related to the concept of sensorium?
25.
What is today’s date?
26.
Where are you?
27.
Who are you?
28.
How old are you?
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
25.
In a mental status exam, it is important to determine if the
individual’s sensorium is clear and if he/she is “oriented times three.” This
refers to
26.
person, place, and time.
27.
day, month, and year of birth.
28.
ability to follow directions.
29.
spatial orientation.
ANS: A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
26.
The initial assessment of the patient in your textbook named
Frank, who was anxious about his job and his marriage, revealed that he
27.
had intrusive thoughts.
28.
was disoriented.
29.
showed inappropriate affect.
30.
had a low intelligence level.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
27.
All of the following describe how a psychologist conducts a
clinical interview EXCEPT
28.
attempts to facilitate communication.
29.
uses non-threatening ways of seeking information.
30.
keeps patient information confidential in all circumstances.
31.
applies appropriate listening skills.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
28.
In a clinical interview, the law regarding “privileged
communication” does NOT apply if the patient
29.
threatens self-harm or harm to another person.
30.
relates a history of sexual abuse.
31.
has been mentally ill for more than five years.
32.
is hospitalized in a psychiatric facility.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
29.
The Anxiety Disorders Interview Schedule for DSM-IV is an
example of a
30.
personality inventory.
31.
semistructured clinical interview.
32.
projective test.
33.
behavioral intervention.
ANS:
B
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
30.
Which of the following medical conditions might also produce
symptoms of behavioral disorders or symptoms that mimic psychological
disorders?
31.
Hyperthyroidism
32.
Cocaine withdrawal
33.
Both a and b
34.
Neither a nor b
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Applied
31.
Behavioral assessments are used to formally assess an individual’s
thoughts, feelings, and behavior in ____________.
32.
general
33.
context
34.
the abstract
35.
theory
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
32.
Four-year-old Roberto is very aggressive toward his peers, which
results in poor peer relationships. A psychologist has been asked to assess
Roberto’s aggressiveness and determine if he needs intervention. The
psychologist would probably do what type of assessment?
33.
General
34.
Projective
35.
Cognitive
36.
Behavioral
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
33.
As part of a behavioral assessment, psychologists sometimes use
___________ settings when it is not possible to do direct observation in a
naturalistic setting.
34.
imaginary
35.
empirical
36.
analog
37.
virtual
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
34.
Which of the following people would make a good candidate for a
behavioral assessment?
35.
A very verbal adult
36.
A young child
37.
A person with a cognitive deficit
38.
Both b and c
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
35.
The reactivity phenomenon of self-monitoring procedures has been
shown to
36.
increase desired behaviors.
37.
decrease undesired behaviors.
38.
both increase desired behaviors and decrease undesired
behaviors.
39.
neither increase desired behaviors nor decrease undesired behaviors.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
36.
The ABCs of observation refer to the ___________ sequence.
37.
affect-behavior-cognition
38.
antecedent-behavior-cognition
39.
antecedent-behavior-consequence
40.
affect-behavior-consequence
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
37.
Which of the following is an example of the reactivity phenomenon?
38.
A man begins to eat less after joining a clinic weight loss
program in which each participant’s weight is recorded weekly by a staff
member.
39.
After joining a fitness club, a woman stops exercising in her
home and instead walks 2 miles a day by herself.
40.
A man changes his brand of cigarettes after his father dies of
lung cancer.
41.
On parents’ visiting day in a classroom, the previously
well-behaved children continue to show good behavior.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
38.
An operational definition refers to identifying specific
behaviors that are ________.
39.
abnormal
40.
harmful
41.
long-standing
42.
measurable
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
39.
An observation that involves identifying specific behaviors that
are observable and measurable is called a(n) _______________.
40.
informal observation
41.
formal observation
42.
unstructured observation
43.
self-observation
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
40.
Most of the “psychological tests” in popular magazines are
_____________________.
41.
reliable
42.
valid
43.
for entertainment only
44.
informative and educational
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Applied
41.
Hannibal is presented with a series of cards that are blots of
ink. He is asked to state what he sees on these cards. Hannibal is probably
taking a(n)
42.
personality inventory.
43.
response inventory.
44.
projective test.
45.
intelligence test.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
42.
Which of the following describes a personality inventory?
43.
Determines the possible contribution of brain damage to the
person’s condition
44.
Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function
45.
Assesses long-standing patterns of behavior
46.
Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
43.
A clinician who wished to assess the effects of treatment over a
period of time would be most likely to do so by repeatedly administering a(n)
____________.
44.
neuropsychological test battery
45.
projective test
46.
intelligence test
47.
behavior rating scale
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
44.
The projective type of psychological tests is based on
_____________ theory.
45.
behavioral
46.
cognitive
47.
humanistic
48.
psychoanalytic
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Factual
45.
When an individual describes what he/she sees in the ambiguous
stimuli of the Rorschach test, it is assumed that the person’s _____________
thoughts are revealed.
46.
unconscious
47.
conscious
48.
preconscious
49.
subconscious
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
46.
A psychoanalytic therapist who wants to assess the unconscious
thoughts and feelings of a patient would be most likely to use the __________
test.
47.
MMPI
48.
Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
49.
Rorschach inkblot test
50.
Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
47.
The Rorschach test is considered controversial because of all of
the following concerns EXCEPT that
48.
the test is based on psychoanalytic theory.
49.
there is little or no data regarding its reliability or
validity.
50.
the inkblots have been changed many times since the test was
developed.
51.
until recently there were no standardized procedures for
administering the test.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
48.
Dr. Jiminez is using Exner’s Comprehensive System to administer
and score the Rorschach inkblot test. This specifies all of the following
EXCEPT
49.
how the cards with the inkblots should be presented.
50.
exactly what the psychologist administering the test should say.
51.
the way in which the test taker’s responses should be recorded.
52.
the amount of time allowed for each inkblot card to be
presented.
ANS:
D
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
49.
The comprehensive system for administering and scoring the
Rorschach inkblot test was developed because
50.
a lack of standardized procedures affects the way the test taker
responds to the questions.
51.
it was discovered that inter-rater reliability had increased
significantly.
52.
Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his test was
being given.
53.
the previous scoring system was found to be difficult and
time-consuming.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
50.
The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) differs from the Rorschach
inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT is asked to use his or her
imagination to
51.
tell a complete story about a picture.
52.
draw a picture based on a story that is read aloud by the
examiner.
53.
write down responses after reading a short story.
54.
tell a story and draw a picture about it.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
51.
Which of the following is an accurate statement about the
Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
52.
Most psychologists interpret responses to the TAT cards in the
same way.
53.
High inter-rater reliability exists among those administering
the test.
54.
The TAT is used as a diagnostic test because validity is high.
55.
Many clinicians use the TAT to encourage people to talk more
openly about their lives.
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
52.
In regard to projective tests, research has found that most
clinicians
53.
do not use projective tests.
54.
have their own ways of administering and scoring the tests.
55.
use standardized procedures when administering and scoring the
tests.
56.
rely on these tests to diagnose psychopathology.
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
53.
“The questions make sense to the person reading them and the
wording of the questions seems to fit the type of information desired.” In
regard to personality inventories, which type of validity is defined by the preceding
statement?
54.
Predictive
55.
Face
56.
Construct
57.
Analytic
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
54.
All of the following statements are TRUE about the MMPI EXCEPT
that
55.
there is little room for interpretation.
56.
the test is tedious and time-consuming.
57.
there is a version for adolescents.
58.
individual responses are examined to determine a diagnostic
pattern.
ANS:
D
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
55.
As an assessment measure, the MMPI is considered unique because
it is
56.
data based.
57.
theory based.
58.
based on the biological model.
59.
based on the humanistic approach.
ANS: A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
56.
If you were asked to compare and contrast the MMPI and the
Rorschach inkblot test, you could say correctly that
57.
responses are interpreted individually in the MMPI.
58.
the pattern of responses is evaluated in the MMPI.
59.
the Rorschach test is more tedious and time-consuming for the
patient to complete.
60.
the Rorschach test more accurately predicts psychopathology.
ANS:
B
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
57.
Since the MMPI is ____________, the assessment concept known as
reliability is increased.
58.
often interpreted by computer
59.
made up of many scales
60.
non-sexist
61.
well-researched
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
58.
The MMPI-2 differs from earlier versions of the MMPI because it
59.
is shorter.
60.
was normed on a much more diverse sample.
61.
is less reliable.
62.
is normed on a much more selective sample.
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
59.
Heinrich falsifies answers his answers on the MMPI so that he
will look good. He will probably have a high score on the __________ scale.
60.
Cannot Say
61.
Lie
62.
Paranoia
63.
Defensiveness
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
60.
The MMPI is a notable measurement instrument because it
61.
has been shown to be valid with a range of psychological
problems.
62.
relies on subjective interpretations of patterns.
63.
is short and easy to administer.
64.
is the oldest test measure developed.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
61.
The MMPI-A, a new version of the Minnesota Multiphasic
Personality Inventory, has been developed specifically for testing
____________.
62.
children with ADHD
63.
children with autism
64.
adults
65.
adolescents
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
62.
While taking the MMPI, James S. made an attempt to give himself
an unrealistic positive image by falsifying answers and trying to appear as
though he had no psychological problems. On the four MMPI scales that determine
the validity of each test administration, you could accurately state that James
S. probably had high scores on the ___________.
63.
L and F scales only
64.
F scale only
65.
L and K scales only
66.
Cannot Say scale only
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Applied
63.
The MMPI-2, a more recent version of the personality inventory,
has been updated to reflect all of the following EXCEPT _____________.
64.
cultural diversity
65.
gender equality
66.
contemporary issues
67.
sexual values
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
64.
Which of the following describes an intelligence test?
65.
Determines the possible contribution of brain damage to the
person’s condition
66.
Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function
67.
Assesses long-standing patterns of behavior
68.
Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
65.
The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s
mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. This means that the child’s
score is compared to the scores of others _____________.
66.
of the same age
67.
in the same grade
68.
who took the test at the same time
69.
with the same level of intelligence
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
66.
An intelligence test is a measure to
67.
determine a person’s intelligence.
68.
predict academic success.
69.
determine a person’s creativity.
70.
all of the above
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
67.
IQ tests measure all of the following abilities EXCEPT
68.
attention.
69.
memory.
70.
reasoning.
71.
adaptability.
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
68.
In regard to IQ tests, which of the following statements is
FALSE?
69.
IQ and intelligence are the same thing.
70.
An IQ test has predictive validity with respect to academic
success.
71.
IQ tests measure abilities such as attention, memory, reasoning,
and perception.
72.
Psychologists have different theories about which skills and
abilities constitute intelligence.
ANS: A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
69.
The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s
mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. This means that the child’s
score is compared to the scores of others
70.
of the same age.
71.
in the same grade.
72.
who took the test at the same time.
73.
with the same level of intelligence.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
70.
The performance scales on the WISC-IV (Weschler Intelligence
Scale for Children) measure all of the following EXCEPT ____________.
71.
factual knowledge
72.
psychomotor abilities
73.
ability to learn new relationships
74.
non-verbal reasoning
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
71.
Which of the following describes a neuropsychological test?
72.
Determines the possible contribution of brain damage to the
person’s condition
73.
Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function
74.
Assesses long-standing patterns of behavior
75.
Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
72.
A neuropsychological test measures abilities in which of the
following areas?
73.
Learning
74.
Abstract reasoning
75.
Motor skills
76.
Cognition
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
73.
Neuropsychological tests are used to assess whether or not an
individual might ____________.
74.
be mentally retarded
75.
have a brain dysfunction
76.
have had a psychotic episode
77.
be in a depressed state
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Applied
74.
If it were important to determine the exact location of brain
impairment, which of the following tests would most likely be used?
75.
Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
76.
Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
77.
Gall Phrenological Brain Scan
78.
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
ANS:
B
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Applied
75.
Although abnormalities in the structure and functioning of the
brain can be detected by neuroimaging techniques, current research is also
looking at
76.
a possible association of these abnormalities with psychological
disorders.
77.
using brain-imaging techniques as a treatment for psychological
disorders.
78.
preventing psychological disorders with neuroimaging techniques.
79.
changing brain functioning from abnormal to normal.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
76.
Recent research involving PET scans has shown that patients with
Alzheimer’s disease have
77.
increased dopamine reuptake in the occipital lobes.
78.
increased serotonin levels in the temporal lobes.
79.
reduced glucose metabolism in the parietal lobes.
80.
reduced amino acid production in the frontal lobes.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Applied
77.
A procedure used to assess brain functioning much like a PET
scan but is less accurate and uses a different tracer substance is ___________.
78.
SQUID
79.
SPECT
80.
TCM
81.
JCT
ANS:
B
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
78.
In addition to MRI, PET, and CT, other brain-imaging techniques
are currently in use or are now being developed. Which of the following is NOT
one of these newer neuroimaging techniques?
79.
fMRI
80.
MEG
81.
SPECT
82.
EMG
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
79.
A primary diagnostic technique for identifying seizure disorders
is the ________.
80.
EEG
81.
DOT
82.
GSR
83.
ERP
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
80.
When brief periods of EEG patterns are recorded in response to a
specific event, the response is called a(n) ____________.
81.
evoked potential
82.
alpha wave
83.
electrodermal response
84.
artifact
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
81.
A healthy adult at rest is most likely to show an EEG pattern
characterized by a high level of _____________.
82.
alpha waves
83.
delta waves
84.
critical waves
85.
irregular
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
82.
Sweat gland activity (electrodermal activity) is measured in
order to assess ______________.
83.
stress and emotional arousal
84.
exhaustion
85.
brain damage
86.
sexual dysfunction and disorders
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
83.
When an assessment strategy shows a problem when none exists, it
is referred to as a ________.
84.
false negative
85.
false positive
86.
negative outcome
87.
forecast error
ANS:
A
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
84.
The problem with generating a false negative during an
assessment strategy is that the patient
85.
will not receive treatment for an actual disorder.
86.
will receive treatment for a disorder they don’t have.
87.
will be tired of being tested.
88.
will be discredited.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
85.
According to the textbook, assessment of psycho-physiological
response to emotional stimuli is important in treating all of the following
EXCEPT _____________.
86.
sexual dysfunctions
87.
posttraumatic stress disorder
88.
hypertension
89.
cancer
ANS:
D
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
86.
The likely future course of a disorder is called its
____________.
87.
prognosis
88.
diagnosis
89.
etiology
90.
inference
ANS:
A
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
87.
Determining what is unique about an individual’s personality,
cultural background, or circumstances can be termed a(n) ________
strategy.
88.
idiographic
89.
nomothetic
90.
classification
91.
categorical
ANS:
A
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
88.
Identifying which general class of problems to which a
presenting problem belongs is known as a(n) ________ strategy.
89.
idiographic
90.
nomothetic
91.
classification
92.
categorical
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
89.
When a taxonomic system is applied to a psychological problem,
it becomes a ___________.
90.
diagnosis
91.
prognosis
92.
nosology
93.
nomenclature
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
90.
One important advantage of using a classification and diagnostic
system like DSM-IV is that knowing a patient’s diagnosis
91.
helps the therapist to develop a treatment plan and prognosis.
92.
allows patients to fully participate in their own treatment.
93.
permits the insurance company to have access to patients’
records.
94.
allows the therapist to see the patient as an individual.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
91.
Believing that it would not helpful, Dr. Thomas refuses to use
the DSM-IV or any other diagnostic system. One problem that we may expect for
this therapist is that it may be hard to
92.
apply what has been learned from treating other patients with
similar problems.
93.
think of patients as individuals.
94.
monitor the progress of patients in therapy.
95.
convince patients that mental disorders do not define an
individual’s personality.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
92.
The dimensional approach to classification of mental disorders
differs from the categorical approach because the dimensional system provides
93.
lists of symptoms that are associated with all of the forms of
psychopathology that are currently believed to exist.
94.
diagnostic labels based on the presence of specific symptoms.
95.
information that is used to determine the cause and treatment of
the disorder.
96.
scales that indicate the degree to which patients are
experiencing various cognitions, moods, and behaviors.
ANS:
D
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
93.
The terms taxonomy and nosology refer to
94.
scientific classification.
95.
the accuracy of a diagnostic system.
96.
the reliability of a grouping of clinical symptoms.
97.
heoretical ideas that cannot be tested objectively.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
94.
People who are correctly diagnosed with a DSM-IV disorder like
Major Depressive Episode will
95.
usually have at least some of the same symptoms as others with
the disorder.
96.
always have at least five of the same symptoms as others with
the disorder.
97.
typically have very few of the same symptoms as others with the
disorder.
98.
usually experience all of the same symptoms as others with the
disorder.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
95.
Several clinicians interview a patient and use a new diagnostic
system to independently provide the same diagnosis. We can say that it appears
the new diagnostic system is _______________.
96.
reliable
97.
valid
98.
both reliable and valid
99.
neither reliable nor valid
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
96.
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders is a
publication of the
97.
American Psychological Association.
98.
International Association of Psychologists.
99.
American Psychiatric Association.
100.
National Institutes of Mental Health.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
97.
The term that describes the names or labels of the disorders is ___________.
98.
taxonomy
99.
nomenclature
100.
nosology
101.
none of the above
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
98.
The classical categorical approach to diagnosis assumes that
each person with a particular disorder will
99.
be helped by recognizing the cause of the disorder.
100.
experience very few of the same symptoms.
101.
respond to the same treatments equally.
102.
experience the same symptoms with little or no variation.
ANS:
D
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
99.
Quantifying a person’s moods, behaviors, and cognitions on a
scale constitutes a(n) ______________ approach to understanding psychopathology.
100.
idiographic
101.
nomothetic
102.
dimensional
103.
prototypical
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
100.
Identifying certain essential characteristics of an entity while
allowing for nonessential variations that don’t change is considered a(n)
____________ approach to understanding psychopathology.
101.
idiographic
102.
nomothetic
103.
dimensional
104.
prototypical
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
101.
A classical categorical approach to diagnosis is
102.
more useful in psychology than in medicine.
103.
more useful in medicine than in psychology.
104.
not appropriate in either medicine or psychology.
105.
equally useful in medicine and psychology.
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
102.
The dimensional approach to diagnosis is characterized by
103.
quantification of patients’ experiences using scales measuring
several areas such as anxiety or depression.
104.
lists of symptoms that patients must experience for the
diagnosis to be assigned.
105.
essential elements that all patients must report for the
diagnosis to be assigned but allowance for specific nonessential variations as
well.
106.
a theoretical explanation for the underlying cause of the
disorder that is assumed to be shared by all patients experiencing similar
symptoms.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
103.
The crucial test as to whether a diagnostic system has a high
degree of validity is that it should result in
104.
an effective treatment plan.
105.
all clinicians reaching the same diagnosis for the patient.
106.
the accurate diagnostic label for the patient.
107.
the same diagnostic label regardless of when the patient is
evaluated.
ANS:
C
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
104.
When a diagnosis tells the clinician what is likely to happen
and possibly predict the course of the disorder and the likely effect of one
treatment or another, the diagnosis has
105.
construct validity.
106.
predictive validity
107.
content validity.
108.
none of the above
ANS: B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
105.
The extent to which a disorder would be found among the
patient’s relatives is known as _________.
106.
familial sharing
107.
familial reliability
108.
familial validity
109.
familial aggregation
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
106.
An important change in the DSM versions that followed DSM-III
was
107.
the lack of a presumed theoretical cause for each disorder.
108.
a change from a dimensional to a categorical system.
109.
greater emphasis on validity and less concern for reliability.
110.
the inclusion of the humanistic view of pathology.
ANS:
A
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
107.
One of the important changes from DSM-III-R to DSM-IV reflects
our greater understanding of the multiple causes and influences on various
mental states and disorders. This change is
108.
less distinction between organically (physically) caused and
psychologically based disorders in DSM-IV.
109.
more distinction between organically (physically) caused and
psychologically based disorders in DSM-IV.
110.
more distinction between neurosis and psychosis in DSM-IV.
111.
less emphasis on the types of treatment that might be
appropriate for each disorder in DSM-IV.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Difficult
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
108.
The best way to have a general idea about a patient’s overall
level of functioning is to look at DSM-IV axis ___.
109.
I
110.
II
111.
III
112.
V
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
109.
In contrast to previous editions of DSM, the fourth edition
integrates possible social and cultural influences on diagnosis. All of the
following questions relate to these influences EXCEPT,
110.
Does the clinician understand the cultural significance of the
patient’s disorder?
111.
Does the patient accept Western models of disease or disorder?
112.
Is it acceptable in the patient’s culture to be physically ill
but not mentally ill?
113.
Do the symptoms of the patient’s disorder meet the criteria for
a DSM-IV diagnosis?
ANS:
D
DIF:
Difficult
-90
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
110.
Using the multiaxial system of DSM-IV, disorders such as Major
Depressive Episode, anxiety disorders, and learning disorders are coded on
__________.
111.
axis I
112.
axis II
113.
axis III
114.
axis IV
ANS:
A
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
111.
In the DSM-IV, medical conditions are coded on ___________.
112.
axis I
113.
axis II
114.
axis III
115.
axis V
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
112.
Keno’s depression began following his recent divorce and
subsequent homelessness. The events of divorce and homelessness are coded on
____________ in DSM-IV.
113.
axis II
114.
axis III
115.
axis IV
116.
axis V
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Applied
113.
One of the most unreliable categories in current classification
is in the area of _____________.
114.
schizophrenia
115.
anxiety disorders
116.
mood disorders
117.
personality disorders
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c
MSC: TYPE: Factual
ESSAY
1. Marisa
goes to see a psychologist because she has been having some acute distress and
seems overwhelmed. Describe the process that Marisa’s psychologist will use to
reach a diagnosis and develop a treatment plan.
ANS:
Marisa will be asked to describe her problem and any symptoms
she is experiencing. She will relate all concerns regarding her behavior and
thinking to the clinician, who will assess Marisa’s behavior and communication
during the interview. The clinician will form an initial diagnosis and those areas
that need to be ruled out.
The clinician may do various types of psychological assessment
to help determine the diagnosis. Where appropriate, certain neuropsychological
testing or neuro imaging may be done,
The clinician will evaluate all assessment data and reach a
diagnosis that will be presented in a multiaxial format.
Based on the diagnosis and possible theoretical orientation of
the clinician, a treatment plan will be developed. The clinician will take into
account the research data on the effectiveness of certain treatments for
certain disorders.
2. Describe
the major objectives and typical procedures of the mental status exam. Be sure
to include the typical activities of the examiner and the intended outcomes of
the process.
ANS:
Mental status exams cover the following five categories:
-Appearance and behavior. The clinician records the client’s
dress, appearance, and motor actions.
-Thought processes. The clinician listens to the patient talk in
order to assess the rate and content of his/her speech.
-Mood and affect. The clinician observes the patient’s emotion,
and actions regarding his/her feelings.
-Intellectual functioning. The clinician assesses the client’s
vocabulary, memory, and overall intellectual functioning.
-Sensorium. The client’s general awareness of his/her
surroundings is assessed.
The mental status exam is done to allow the clinician to make a
preliminary determination of the areas of the patient’s behavior and condition
that should be assessed further.
3. Projective
tests such as the Thematic Apperception Test and the original Rorschach inkblot
test are often criticized with regard to their reliability. Explain why the
reliability of these tests may not be as good as a personality measure such as
the MMPI.
ANS:
Projective tests are based on the use of ambiguous stimuli onto
which the client projects his/her own personality and unconscious fears and so
reveal unconscious thoughts to the therapist. The TAT, which uses pictures as
stimuli, and the Rorschach, which uses inkblots as stimuli, are both subject to
variation in their administration and interpretation. Consequently, they are
less reliable than more objective assessments such as the MMPI, which consists
of multiple-choice questions and has clear norms and guidelines for its
interpretation.
4. The
DSM-IV is based on a multiaxial system. Explain the content of each axis and
its contribution to understanding the patient.
ANS:
The five components of the DSM-IV listed below allow individuals
with possible psychological disorders to be rated on five different dimensions,
in order to facilitate diagnosis and treatment decisions.
-Axis I is used to rate a client’s major condition or disorder.
-Axis II is used to record enduring conditions such as
personality disorders or mental retardations.
-Axis III is used to record a client’s physical or health
condition.
-Axis IV reflects psychosocial and environmental problems that
might have an impact on a disorder.
-Axis V indicates the client’s current level of adaptive
functioning.
5. Labeling
a patient with a diagnosis is often referred to as a “double-edged sword” as
the diagnostic label can both help and hurt the patient. Explain the advantages
and disadvantages (to the patient) of a diagnostic label.
ANS:
The use of labels in diagnosis allows clinicians to formulate
and compare diagnoses and to select treatment approaches. However, many
psychological disorders carry with them significant stigma. Therefore, the
label may diminish the client’s self-esteem or result in him/her being treated
poorly by others. Incorrect labels can also result in ineffective or harmful
treatment choices.
CHAPTER 5: ANXIETY AND ITS DISORDERS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which
of the following characterizes the mood-state known as anxiety?
2. Positive
mood state
3. Reduced
heart rate
4. Apprehension
about the future
5. Muscle
relaxation
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
2. Anxiety
is closely related to which of the following psychological disorders?
3. Schizophrenia
4. Depression
5. Dementia
6. Psychosis
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
3. People
behave best when they are ___________.
4. very
anxious
5. not
anxious at all
6. a
little anxious
7. fearful
ANS:
C
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
4. When
people are anxious, they
5. know
it is irrational, but can’t help it.
6. believe
their feelings are rational.
7. have
trouble recognizing reality.
8. don’t
realize they are feeling anxious.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
5. Anxiety
is thought to be a____________ state, while fear is more_______.
6. future-oriented;
immediate
7. short-term;
long-term
8. real;
irrational
9. immediate;
future-oriented
ANS:
A
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
6. The
“flight or fight” response that is triggered by anxiety primarily involves the
____________ nervous system.
7. autonomic
8. parasympathetic
9. peripheral
10.
somatic
ANS:
A
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
7. “I’ve
got to get out of here right now, or I may not make it!” This statement is most
likely to be said by someone experiencing a(n)
8. episode
of depression.
9. future-oriented
mood state.
10.
fear reaction.
11.
parasympathetic “surge.”
ANS:
C
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Applied
8. ____________
is characterized by apprehension because of future unpredictability, whereas
____________ is characterized by strong escapist tendencies.
9. Anxiety;
fear
10.
Fear; anxiety
11.
Psychoses; neuroses
12.
neuroses; psychoses
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
9. Which
of the following is NOT a basic type of panic attack?
10.
Situation bound
11.
Unexpected
12.
Situation predisposed
13.
Situation inevitable
ANS:
D
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
10.
Mrs. Pan has an anxiety disorder in which she has occasional
panic attacks when shopping at the mall. This type of panic attack is referred
to as _______________.
11.
uncued
12.
situationally predisposed
13.
cued
14.
situationally bound
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Applied
11.
Which type of panic attack is most closely related to phobias?
12.
Situationally predisposed
13.
Situationally bound
14.
Unexpected
15.
Uncued
ANS:
B
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
12.
Lawanda was walking down the street on a bright sunny day when,
all of a sudden, she had an abrupt attack of intense fear that totally
surprised her. This is what type of panic attack?
13.
Situationally predisposed
14.
Situationally bound
15.
Cued
16.
Uncued
ANS:
D
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Applied
13.
Hideki was attending his fifth baseball game at Condor Stadium,
where he had previously had a panic attack. He did not know if he would have a
panic attack today, but shortly after entering the stadium, he did. This type
of panic attack is ____________.
14.
situationally predisposed
15.
situationally bound
16.
cued
17.
uncued
ANS:
A
DIF:
Moderate
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Applied
14.
According to the DSM-IV-TR criteria, the symptoms of a panic
attack develop abruptly and reach a peak within _____ minute(s).
15.
1
16.
10
17.
30
18.
60
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
15.
Fear activates a
16.
surge of autonomic energy so we can flee.
17.
psychological but not physiological response.
18.
physiological but not psychological response.
19.
decrease in autonomic energy so we can flee.
ANS:
A
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
KEY: WWW
MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
16.
Research suggests that we inherit a tendency to be tense, which
is ____________.
17.
caused by a single gene
18.
caused by multiple genes
19.
related to depression
20.
related to schizophrenia
ANS:
B
DIF:
Easy
OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3)
MSC: TYPE: Factual
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