Basic Biomechanics 8th Ed Susan J. Hall – Test Bank

 

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Basic Biomechanics, 8e (Hall)

Chapter 4   The Biomechanics of Human Bone Growth and Development

 

1) Which of the following components of bone provides it with flexibility?

1.   A) water

2.   B) calcium carbonate

3.   C) calcium phosphate

4.   D) collagen

 

2) Which of the following terms is used to describe bone with relatively high porosity?

1.   A) cortical

2.   B) trabecular

3.   C) spongy

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

3) Which of the following terms is defined as deformation divided by original length?

1.   A) stress

2.   B) strain

3.   C) strength

4.   D) elasticity

 

4) Cortical bone is strongest in resisting which type of stress?

1.   A) tensile stress

2.   B) shear stress

3.   C) compressive stress

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

5) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?

1.   A) the skull

2.   B) the humerus

3.   C) the sternum

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

6) Which of the following is an example of a flat bone?

1.   A) talus

2.   B) maxilla

3.   C) radius

4.   D) scapula

 

7) Which of the following is an irregular bone?

1.   A) radius

2.   B) rib

3.   C) femur

4.   D) vertebrae

 

 

 

8) The tarsals are examples of what type of bones?

1.   A) long bones

2.   B) short bones

3.   C) flat bones

4.   D) irregular bones

 

9) Which of the following statements regarding bone growth is true?

1.   A) Longitudinal growth continues only as long as the epiphyses exist.

2.   B) Circumferential growth continues throughout most of the lifespan.

3.   C) Both longitudinal growth continues only as long as the epiphyses exist and circumferential growth continues throughout most of the lifespan are true.

4.   D) Neither longitudinal growth continues only as long as the epiphyses exist nor circumferential growth continues throughout most of the lifespan is true.

 

10) Which of the following is known as the longitudinal “growth center” of a bone?

1.   A) osteoclast

2.   B) periosteum

3.   C) osteoblast

4.   D) epiphysis

 

11) How do bones typically respond to stress?

1.   A) atrophy

2.   B) hypertrophy

3.   C) no change, as long as the epiphysis has sealed

4.   D) it is impossible to predict how a bone will respond to stress

 

12) Loss of bone mass has been found in which of the following?

1.   A) bed-ridden patients

2.   B) astronauts

3.   C) tennis players

4.   D) both bed-ridden patients and astronauts

5.   E) all of these answers are correct

 

13) Which of the following occurs in the absence of gravitational forces?

1.   A) bone hypertrophy

2.   B) bone atrophy

3.   C) bone modeling

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

14) In a child, severe injury to an epiphysis may result in which of the following?

1.   A) premature closure of the epiphyseal junction

2.   B) termination of bone growth

3.   C) both premature closure of the epiphyseal junction and termination of bone growth

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

 

 

15) What is the most common symptom of osteoporosis?

1.   A) frequent headaches

2.   B) joint pain in the extremities

3.   C) back pain derived from vertebral fractures

4.   D) swelling of the distal extremities

 

16) Which of the following is a possible symptom of osteoporosis?

1.   A) vertebral crush fractures.

2.   B) reduced body height.

3.   C) dowager’s hump.

4.   D) all of these answers are correct.

 

17) Which of the following is true regarding epiphyseal plate injuries?

1.   A) These injuries can terminate longitudinal bone growth.

2.   B) These injuries can result from acute trauma.

3.   C) These injuries can result from repetitive loading of a low magnitude.

4.   D) Both these injuries can terminate longitudinal bone growth and these injuries can result from acute trauma.

5.   E) All of these answers are correct.

 

18) The water content of bone makes up approximately what percentage of the total bone weight?

1.   A) 5% – 10%

2.   B) 15% – 20%

3.   C) 25% – 30%

4.   D) 40% – 50%

 

19) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the strength of bone?

1.   A) Cortical bone can withstand more stress than trabecular bone.

2.   B) Trabecular bone can withstand more strain than cortical bone.

3.   C) Both cortical bone can withstand more stress than trabecular bone and trabecular bone can withstand more strain than cortical bone.

4.   D) None of these answers is correct.

 

20) Specialized bone cells that build new bone tissue are called what?

1.   A) periosteum

2.   B) osteoblasts

3.   C) osteoclasts

4.   D) epiphysis

 

21) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding bone growth?

1.   A) When bone remodeling occurs, bone mass may stay the same.

2.   B) When bone remodeling occurs, bone mass may decrease.

3.   C) When bone modeling occurs, bone mass increases.

4.   D) Both when bone remodeling occurs, bone mass may stay the same and when bone remodeling occurs, bone mass may decrease.

5.   E) All of these answers are correct.

 

22) What happens when osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity?

1.   A) bone mass increases

2.   B) bone modeling

3.   C) bone mass decreases

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

23) What happens when osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity?

1.   A) bone hypertrophy

2.   B) bone modeling

3.   C) increased bone mass

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

24) Reduced bone mass and density without the presence of a fracture defines what?

1.   A) osteoporosis

2.   B) osteopenia

3.   C) osteoblast

4.   D) osteoclast

 

25) Undesirably low body weight in young female athletes can lead to what?

1.   A) amenorrhea

2.   B) osteoporosis

3.   C) menopause

4.   D) both amenorrhea and osteoporosis

5.   E) all of these answers are correct

 

26) Which of the following is/are part of the “female athlete triad”?

1.   A) osteoporosis

2.   B) disordered eating

3.   C) cessation of menses

4.   D) both osteoporosis and disordered eating

5.   E) all of these answers are correct

 

27) The “female athlete triad” can result in which of the following?

1.   A) stress fractures

2.   B) irreversible bone loss

3.   C) death

4.   D) both stress fractures and irreversible bone loss

5.   E) all of these answers are correct

 

28) Which of the following is/are known risk factor(s) for developing osteoporosis?

1.   A) smoking

2.   B) calcium deficiency

3.   C) excessive caffeine consumption

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

 

 

29) A fracture caused by a tendon or ligament pulling a small chip of bone away from the rest of the bone is called what?

1.   A) simple fracture

2.   B) compound fracture

3.   C) avulsion fracture

4.   D) spiral fracture

 

30) Which of the following is true regarding greenstick fractures?

1.   A) They are incomplete fractures.

2.   B) They are caused by bending or torsional loads.

3.   C) They are more common in adults than children.

4.   D) Both they are incomplete fractures and they are caused by bending or torsional loads.

5.   E) All of these answers are correct.

 

31) When a skier’s body rotates in a direction opposite of the foot (held steady by the boot), what type of fracture is likely in the tibia?

1.   A) spiral

2.   B) impacted

3.   C) depressed

4.   D) stress

 

32) Which type of fracture results from repeated loading of relatively low magnitude?

1.   A) spiral

2.   B) impacted

3.   C) depressed

4.   D) stress

 

33) Which of the following factors can predispose runners to stress fractures?

1.   A) increased training duration or intensity without allowing time for bone remodeling

2.   B) abrupt changes in running surface

3.   C) both increased training duration or intensity without allowing time for bone remodeling and abrupt changes in running surface

4.   D) runners are not predisposed to stress fractures

 

34) Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

1.   A) the skull

2.   B) the vertebrae

3.   C) the sternum

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

35) Which type of stress on a long bone will likely result in a spiral fracture?

1.   A) torsion

2.   B) tension

3.   C) compression

4.   D) bending

 

 

 

36) Choose the term that describes the ratio of stress to strain in a loaded material.

1.   A) stiffness

2.   B) strain

3.   C) stress fracture

4.   D) stress reaction

 

37) Choose the term that describes the ability to resist pressing or squeezing force.

1.   A) bone atrophy

2.   B) bone hypertrophy

3.   C) compressive strength

4.   D) tensile strength

 

38) Choose the term that describes the compact mineralized connective tissue with low porosity that is found in the shafts of long bones.

1.   A) long bones

2.   B) flat bones

3.   C) trabecular bone

4.   D) cortical bone

 

39) Choose the term that describes the amount of deformation divided by the original length of the structure.

1.   A) porous

2.   B) short bones

3.   C) stiffness

4.   D) strain

 

40) Choose the term that describes the skull, vertebrae, sternum, and ribs.

1.   A) anisotropic

2.   B) appendicular skeleton

3.   C) articular cartilage

4.   D) axial skeleton

 

41) Choose the term that describes the small, cubical skeletal structures, including the carpals and tarsals.

1.   A) flat bones

2.   B) short bones

3.   C) long bones

4.   D) irregular bones

 

42) Choose the term that describes the specialized bone cells that build new bone tissue.

1.   A) osteoblasts

2.   B) osteopenia

3.   C) osteoclasts

4.   D) osteoporosis

 

 

 

43) Choose the term that describes the decrease in bone mass resulting from a predominance of osteoclast activity.

1.   A) appendicular skeleton

2.   B) bone hypertrophy

3.   C) axial skeleton

4.   D) bone atrophy

 

44) Choose the term that describes the disorder involving decreased bone mass and strength with one or more fractures.

1.   A) osteoclasts

2.   B) osteoporosis

3.   C) periosteum

4.   D) porous

 

45) Choose the term that describes a fracture resulting from repeated loading of relatively low magnitude.

1.   A) stress fracture

2.   B) stress reaction

3.   C) tensile strength

4.   D) trabecular bone

 

46) Bone ________ refers to the increase in bone mass.

 

47) An epiphyseal injury can terminate ________ bone growth.

 

48) ________ refers to an excessive loss of bone mass and strength resulting in one or more fractures.

 

49) ________ ________ is the fracture resulting from repeated loading of relatively low magnitude.

 

50) A condition of reduced bone mineral density that predisposes the individual to fractures is called ________.

 

51) List and describe the four types of bones, including function and examples.

 

52) Explain Wolff’s law, including why it is important.

 

53) Name four of the five genetic risk factors for osteoporosis.

 

54) Explain the female athlete triad.

 

55) The effects of several months’ intervention treatment with whole body vibration appear to include improved bone mineral density.

Basic Biomechanics, 8e (Hall)

Chapter 7   The Biomechanics of the Human Upper Extremity

 

1) Scapulohumeral rhythm involves ________ of the scapula and ________ of the humerus.

1.   A) downward rotation; extension

2.   B) downward rotation; abduction

3.   C) upward rotation; abduction

4.   D) abduction; adduction

 

2) What is/are the purpose(s) of the scapula muscles?

1.   A) stabilize the scapula

2.   B) move the scapula

3.   C) both stabilize the scapula and move the scapula

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

3) Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle?

1.   A) teres major

2.   B) infraspinatus

3.   C) supraspinatus

4.   D) subscapularis

5.   E) all of these answers are correct

 

4) Which of the following secretes synovial fluid to lessen friction between soft tissues around joints?

1.   A) menisci

2.   B) articular cartilage

3.   C) bursae

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

5) Glenohumeral dislocations usually occur when the humerus is in which of the following positions?

1.   A) abducted

2.   B) externally rotated

3.   C) both abducted and externally rotated

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

6) Which of the following activities may promote the development of rotator cuff impingement syndrome?

1.   A) throwing

2.   B) swimming

3.   C) serving in tennis

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

 

 

7) The biceps brachii is strongest and most effective as an elbow flexor when the forearm is in what position?

1.   A) neutral

2.   B) supinated

3.   C) pronated

4.   D) does not matter

 

8) The brachialis is strongest and most effective as an elbow flexor when the forearm is in what position?

1.   A) neutral

2.   B) supinated

3.   C) pronated

4.   D) does not matter

 

9) To best isolate the brachialis (reduce the effectiveness of the other flexors), perform arm curls with the forearm in what position?

1.   A) neutral

2.   B) supinated

3.   C) pronated

4.   D) does not matter

 

10) Carpometacarpal joint 1 is what type of joint?

1.   A) hinge

2.   B) condyloid

3.   C) saddle

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

11) The interphalangeal joints are what type joints?

1.   A) hinge

2.   B) condyloid

3.   C) saddle

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

12) Metacarpophalangeal joints 2-5 are what type joints?

1.   A) hinge

2.   B) condyloid

3.   C) saddle

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

13) Overuse of the wrist extensors can cause what?

1.   A) tennis elbow

2.   B) lateral epicondylitis

3.   C) tendinitis

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

 

 

14) The humeroulnar, humeroradial, and proximal radioulnar joints are the three articulations present at which joint?

1.   A) wrist

2.   B) elbow

3.   C) shoulder

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

15) Which of the following factors provides stability at the elbow?

1.   A) the articulating bones

2.   B) ligaments

3.   C) both the articulating bones and ligaments

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

16) Pronation and supination of the forearm occur at which of the following joints?

1.   A) proximal radioulnar joint

2.   B) distal radioulnar joint

3.   C) both proximal radioulnar joint and distal radioulnar joint

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

17) Which type of movement is permitted at the radiocarpal joint?

1.   A) sagittal plane motion

2.   B) circumduction

3.   C) frontal plane motion

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

18) Movement of the hand at the wrist toward the thumb side of the arm (frontal plane) is known as which of the following?

1.   A) radial deviation

2.   B) ulnar deviation

3.   C) abduction

4.   D) adduction

 

19) The large range of movement of the thumb compared to that of the fingers is derived from the structure of which of the following?

1.   A) the thumb’s carpometacarpal joint

2.   B) the thumb’s intermetacarpal joint

3.   C) the thumb’s metacarpophalangeal joint

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

20) Which joint in the body has the most range of motion?

1.   A) sternoclavicular

2.   B) acromioclavicular

3.   C) glenohumeral

4.   D) humeroulnar

 

 

 

21) Which of these muscles is not a mover of the humerus?

1.   A) biceps brachii

2.   B) coracobrachialis

3.   C) deltoid

4.   D) trapezius

 

22) Which of the following muscles is not an elbow flexor?

1.   A) biceps

2.   B) triceps

3.   C) brachioradialis

4.   D) brachialis

 

23) Where do the wrist flexors originate?

1.   A) medial epicondyle

2.   B) lateral epicondyle

3.   C) both medial epicondyle and lateral epicondyle

4.   D) depends on which one

 

24) Throwing injuries to the elbow usually fall into which category?

1.   A) acute

2.   B) chronic

3.   C) both acute and chronic equally

4.   D) throwing does not cause injury to the elbow

 

25) Which muscles originate distal to the wrist and insert distal to the wrist?

1.   A) intrinsics

2.   B) extrinsics

3.   C) elbow flexors

4.   D) elbow extensors

 

26) Which of the following groups are vulnerable to carpal tunnel syndrome?

1.   A) jobs requiring repeated forceful wrist flexion

2.   B) jobs requiring habitual resting of the arms on the palmar side of the wrist

3.   C) skateboarders

4.   D) both jobs requiring repeated forceful wrist flexion and jobs requiring habitual resting of the arms on the palmar side of the wrist

5.   E) all of these answers are correct

 

27) Right-handed golfers will likely incur epicondylitis where?

1.   A) lateral epicondylitis on the left side

2.   B) lateral epicondylitis on the right side

3.   C) medial epicondylitis on the left side

4.   D) occurs with equal frequency on both sides of both arms

 

 

 

28) The wrist extensor muscles originate where?

1.   A) lateral epicondyle

2.   B) medial epicondyle

3.   C) radius

4.   D) ulna

 

29) Choose the term that describes an irregular joint between the acromion process of the scapula and the distal clavicle.

1.   A) acromioclavicular joint

2.   B) humeroradial joint

3.   C) coracoclavicular joint

4.   D) glenohumeral joint

 

30) Choose the term that describes the rim of soft tissue located on the periphery of the glenoid fossa that adds stability to the glenohumeral joint.

1.   A) extrinsic muscles

2.   B) glenohumeral joint

3.   C) glenoid labrum

4.   D) humeroradial joint

 

31) Choose the term that describes the band of tendons of the subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor, which attach to the humeral head.

1.   A) retinacula

2.   B) rotator cuff

3.   C) scapulohumeral rhythm

4.   D) sternoclavicular joint

 

32) Choose the term that describes the sacs secreting synovial fluid internally that lessen friction between soft tissues around joints.

1.   A) acromioclavicular joint

2.   B) bursae

3.   C) coracoclavicular joint

4.   D) epicondylitis

 

33) Choose the term that describes a regular pattern of scapular rotation that accompanies and facilitates humeral abduction.

1.   A) retinacula

2.   B) rotator cuff

3.   C) scapulohumeral rhythm

4.   D) sternoclavicular joint

 

 

 

34) Choose the term that describes the gliding joint in which the capitellum of the humerus articulates with the proximal end of the radius.

1.   A) glenohumeral joint

2.   B) humeroradial joint

3.   C) humeroulnar joint

4.   D) sternoclavicular joint

 

35) Choose the term that describes the pivots joints at both the proximal and distal ends.

1.   A) radiocarpal joints

2.   B) radioulnar joint

3.   C) glenohumeral joint

4.   D) humeroulnar joint

 

36) Choose the term that describes an inflammation and sometimes microrupturing of the collagenous tissues on either the lateral or medial side of the distal humerus.

1.   A) acromioclavicular joint

2.   B) bursae

3.   C) coracoclavicular joint

4.   D) epicondylitis

 

37) Choose the term that describes the fibrous bands of fascia.

1.   A) retinacula

2.   B) rotator cuff

3.   C) scapulohumeral rhythm

4.   D) sternoclavicular joint

 

38) Choose the term that describes the muscles with the proximal attachments located proximal to the wrist and distal attachments located distal to the wrist.

1.   A) coracoclavicular joint

2.   B) epicondylitis

3.   C) extrinsic muscles

4.   D) intrinsic muscles

 

39) The rim of soft tissue located on the periphery of the glenoid fossa that adds stability to the glenohumeral joint is called the glenoid ________.

 

40) Muscles with one attachment proximal to the wrist and the other attachment distal to the wrist are called ________ muscles.

 

41) Concurrent movement of the scapula and the humerus is called ________ ________.

 

42) The most commonly dislocated joint in the human body is the ________ joint.

 

43) Describe the two types of epicondylitis, including common names, involved muscles, symptoms and probable causes.

 

44) Describe carpal tunnel syndrome, including affected area, symptoms and probable causes.

 

45) Describe rotator cuff impingement syndrome, including involved muscle(s), symptoms and probable causes.

 

46) Explain the relationship between range of motion and stability at a joint, including examples of joints with different number of axes.

 

47) Workers who use vibrating tools are particularly susceptible to carpal tunnel syndrome.

 

48) Proper pitching mechanics in youth pitchers can help prevent elbow injuries by reducing the valgus load on the elbow.

 

49) Shoulder girdle and shoulder joint are interchangeable terms meaning the same thing.

 

50) The rotator cuff muscle which is located between the scapula and the thorax is the supraspinatus.

Basic Biomechanics, 8e (Hall)

Chapter 9   The Biomechanics of the Human Spine

 

1) Which of the following vertebral regions has the best range of motion?

1.   A) cervical

2.   B) thoracic

3.   C) lumbar

4.   D) sacral

 

2) Which part of the vertebrae bears the most weight?

1.   A) lamina

2.   B) superior articulating facet

3.   C) body

4.   D) inferior articulating facet

 

3) Which of the following helps the spine absorb shock?

1.   A) spinal curves

2.   B) intervertebral discs

3.   C) ligaments

4.   D) both spinal curves and intervertebral discs

5.   E) all of these answers are correct

 

4) Which statement is not true about the intervertebral discs?

1.   A) act as cushions between the vertebrae

2.   B) account for approximately 1/4 of the height of the spine

3.   C) are responsible for spinal movement due to compression

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

5) Which of the following spinal curves are referred to as primary curves?

1.   A) the thoracic and cervical curves

2.   B) the cervical and lumbar curves

3.   C) the cervical and sacral curves

4.   D) the thoracic and sacral curves

 

6) The condition of exaggerated thoracic curvature is known as which of the following?

1.   A) lordosis

2.   B) kyphosis

3.   C) scoliosis

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

7) The articulations between adjacent vertebral bodies are which of the following types of joints?

1.   A) pivot joints

2.   B) hinge joints

3.   C) symphysis joints

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

8) Which vertebrae are the largest?

1.   A) cervical

2.   B) thoracic

3.   C) lumbar

4.   D) sacral

 

9) The rectus abdominis causes flexion when contracted ________.

1.   A) unilaterally

2.   B) bilaterally

3.   C) eccentrically

4.   D) all of these answers are correct

 

10) What is the result when part of the nucleus pulposus of the disc protrudes and presses on a nerve?

1.   A) stress fracture

2.   B) acute fracture

3.   C) herniated disc

4.   D) contusion

 

11) What joint is usually the culprit in low back pain?

1.   A) sacroiliac

2.   B) lumbosacral

3.   C) sacrococcygeal

4.   D) acetabulum

 

12) A typical geriatric disc has a fluid content that is reduced by approximately how much?

1.   A) 5%

2.   B) 35%

3.   C) 50%

4.   D) 85%

 

13) Transverse or spinous process fractures may result from which of the following?

1.   A) extremely forceful contraction of the attached muscles

2.   B) the sustenance of a hard blow to the back of the spine

3.   C) both extremely forceful contraction of the attached muscles and the sustenance of a hard blow to the back of the spine

4.   D) none of these answers is correct

 

14) Which of the following are potential consequences of spinal fractures?

1.   A) paralysis

2.   B) death

3.   C) both paralysis and death

4.   D) none of these answers is correct