Criminal Justice in Action The Core 6th Edition by Larry K. Gaines – Test Bank

 

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Sample Test

Chapter 3—Inside Criminal Law

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.   The ____________________ is the supreme law of the land, and as such is the basis of all law in the United States.

a.

Declaration of Independence

b.

U.S. Penal Code

c.

U.S. Constitution

d.

Case law of the United States Supreme Court

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 63              OBJ:   LO 1

 

2.   Statutes enacted by legislative bodies at any level of government make up a source of law, which is generally referred to as:

a.

Administrative law

b.

Case law

c.

Constitutional law

d.

Statutory law

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 63-64         OBJ:   LO 1

 

3.   On a state and local level, ______________ can write criminal statutes through a form of direct democracy known as the ballot initiative.

a.

Law enforcement

b.

Legislators

c.

Judges

d.

Voters

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 64-64         OBJ:   LO 1

 

4.   The term “judge-made” law is synonymous with:

a.

Administrative law

b.

Case law

c.

Constitutional law

d.

Statutory law

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 65              OBJ:   LO 1

 

5.   The rules, orders, and decisions of regulatory agencies make up:

a.

Administrative law

b.

Case law

c.

Constitutional law

d.

Statutory law

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 65              OBJ:   LO 1

 

 

6.   Court decisions that provide guidance in interpreting the law are called:

a.

Procedural guidelines

b.

Benchmarks

c.

Precedents

d.

Baselines

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 66              OBJ:   LO 1

 

7.   The primary legal function of the law is to:

a.

Teach societal boundaries

b.

Reflect society’s changing morality

c.

Express public morality

d.

Maintain social order by protecting citizens from criminal harm

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 66              OBJ:   LO 2

 

8.   The social function of the law includes the concepts of:

a.

Protecting individual rights and teaching societal boundaries

b.

Protecting individual rights and punishing offenders

c.

Expressing public morality and teaching societal boundaries

d.

Expressing public morality and punishing offenders

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 67              OBJ:   LO 2

 

9.   Law may be broken down according to various classifications. Which of the following is

not one of these classifications?

a.

Civil law and criminal law

b.

Felonies and misdemeanors

c.

Mala in se and Mala prohibita

d.

Tort crimes and civil crimes

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 69              OBJ:   LO 3

 

10.                The remedy for a violation of civil law is:

a.

Monetary damages awarded to the plaintiff

b.

Probation up to five years

c.

A fine paid to the state or county

d.

Incarceration up to 1 year

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 69              OBJ:   LO 3

 

11.                What is the burden of proof necessary to win a civil trial?

a.

Clear and convincing evidence

b.

Probable cause

c.

Preponderance of evidence

d.

Proof beyond a reasonable doubt

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 70              OBJ:   LO 3

 

 

12.                In a criminal case, the burden of proof is:

a.

Beyond a reasonable doubt

b.

Preponderance of the evidence

c.

Beyond a shadow of doubt

d.

By clear and convincing evidence

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 70              OBJ:   LO 3

 

13.                In a civil case, the injured party is called the ____.

a.

Plaintiff

b.

Defendant

c.

Prosecutor

d.

State

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 69              OBJ:   LO 3

 

14.                Crimes punishable by death or imprisonment in a federal or state penitentiary for 1 year or longer are called:

a.

Felonies

b.

Gross misdemeanors

c.

Misdemeanors

d.

Petty misdemeanors

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 70              OBJ:   LO 3

 

15.                What degree of felony carries the maximum penalty of death?

a.

Capital offense

b.

First degree felonies

c.

Second degree felonies

d.

Third degree felonies

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 70              OBJ:   LO 3

 

16.                As a circumstance of murder, ____ means that the offender considered the crime beforehand.

a.

Deliberation

b.

Malice aforethought

c.

Premeditation

d.

Spontaneity

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 71              OBJ:   LO 3

 

17.                Which category of murder occurs when the victim provoked the offender to act violently?

a.

First degree murder

b.

Second degree murder

c.

Voluntary manslaughter

d.

Involuntary manslaughter

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 71              OBJ:   LO 3

 

 

18.                A homicide that results from the offender’s carelessness, but occurs when the offender lacks intent is classified as:

a.

First degree murder

b.

Second degree murder

c.

Voluntary manslaughter

d.

Involuntary manslaughter

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 71              OBJ:   LO 3

 

19.                Misdemeanors are punishable by a fine or by confinement up to:

a.

1 year

b.

5 years

c.

10 years

d.

Life imprisonment

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   72                  OBJ:   LO 3

 

20.                ____ are offenses punishable by 30 days to a year in jail.

a.

Gross misdemeanors

b.

Third degree felonies

c.

Violations

d.

Petty misdemeanors

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 72              OBJ:   LO 3

 

21.                The term mala prohibita refers to:

a.

An act that would be wrong even if no law prohibited it

b.

A violation of natural law

c.

A “human-made” law

d.

An act that goes against the public morality

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 72              OBJ:   LO 4

 

22.                The offense of robbery is:

a.

Mala in se

b.

Mala prohibita

c.

A tort

d.

A misdemeanor

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 72              OBJ:   LO 4

 

23.                A criminal act that is considered wrong even if there is no law prohibiting it is known as:

a.

A felony

b.

Mala in se

c.

Mala prohibita

d.

A misdemeanor

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 72              OBJ:   LO 4

 

 

24.                Murder, rape, and theft are examples of ____ crimes.

a.

Mala in se

b.

Mala prohibita

c.

Premeditated

d.

Deliberate

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 72              OBJ:   LO 4

 

25.                Which of the following is NOT a basic element of corpus delicti?

a.

Actus reus

b.

Mala in se

c.

Mens rea

d.

Concurrence, or coming together of the criminal act and guilty mind

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 74              OBJ:   LO 5

 

26.                A wrongful mental state, or intent, is known as:

a.

Actus reus

b.

Mala in se

c.

Mens rea

d.

Concurrence

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 75              OBJ:   LO 5

 

27.                The guilty act in a criminal offense is referred to as:

a.

Actus reus

b.

Mens rea

c.

Corpus delicti

d.

Habeus corpus

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 73              OBJ:   LO 5

 

28.                As discussed in the textbook, Corpus delicti refers to:

a.

The dead body at the scene of a crime

b.

The element of criminal intent

c.

The basic elements of a crime

d.

The criminal act

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 74              OBJ:   LO 5

 

29.                A defendant is said to have ____ committed a criminal act when he or she desires to engage in certain criminal conduct or to cause a certain criminal result.

a.

Purposely

b.

Knowingly

c.

Negligently

d.

Accidentally

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 75              OBJ:   LO 5

 

 

30.                Which category of mens rea involves the mental state in which the defendant grossly deviates from the standard of care that a reasonable person would use under the same circumstances?

a.

Purpose

b.

Knowledge

c.

Accidental

d.

Negligence

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 75-76         OBJ:   LO 5

 

31.                Strict liability is inconsistent with the general principles of criminal law, because ____ is lacking.

a.

Mens rea

b.

Actus reus

c.

Causation

d.

Concurrence

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 76              OBJ:   LO 5

 

32.                A crime in which the defendant is guilty regardless of his or her state of mind at the time of the act is known as:

a.

Tort

b.

First degree homicide

c.

Strict liability

d.

Manslaughter

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 76              OBJ:   LO 5

 

33.                What is the term that means that the guilty act and the guilty intent occur together?

a.

Causation

b.

Attendant circumstances

c.

Concurrence

d.

Harm

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 78              OBJ:   LO 5

 

34.                The facts surrounding an underlying crime are referred to as:

a.

Causation

b.

Attendant circumstances

c.

Concurrence

d.

Harm

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 78-79         OBJ:   LO 5

 

35.                What defense is used when the wrongdoing of the accused is excused because he or she is too young to fully understand the consequences of his or her actions?

a.

Infancy

b.

Insanity

c.

Intoxication

d.

Mistake

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 80              OBJ:   LO 6

 

36.                What is the defense for criminal ability that is used to assert a lack of criminal responsibility because according to law, a person cannot have the requisite state of mind to commit a crime?

a.

Duress

b.

Insanity

c.

Entrapment

d.

Mistake

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 81              OBJ:   LO 6

 

37.                A common law test of criminal responsibility that relies on the defendant’s inability to distinguish right from wrong is the:

a.

Durham Rule

b.

Irresistible-Impulse Test

c.

M’Naughten Rule

d.

Substantial Capacity Test

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 81              OBJ:   LO 6

 

38.                A defense for criminal liability in which the defendant claims that the taking of intoxicants rendered him or her unable to form the requisite intent to commit a criminal act is:

a.

Never accepted in court

b.

A good defense if the intoxication was voluntary

c.

A good defense if the intoxication was involuntary

d.

Not allowed in felony court but is sometimes allowed in misdemeanor trials

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 82              OBJ:   LO 6

 

39.                When the wrongful threat of one person induces another person to perform an act that he or she would otherwise not perform, ____ exists.

a.

Duress

b.

Entrapment

c.

Necessity

d.

Self-defense

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 84              OBJ:   LO 7

 

40.                A person who used force in order to protect him or herself from harm would apply the criminal defense of:

a.

Necessity

b.

Justification

c.

Self-defense

d.

Duress

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 85              OBJ:   LO 7

 

41.                Which of the following is NOT an excuse defense?

a.

Mistake

b.

Infancy

c.

Insanity

d.

Necessity

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 87              OBJ:   LO 7

 

42.                Law that defines the manner in which the rights and duties of individuals may be enforced is known as __________________.

a.

Legislative criminal law

b.

Procedural criminal law

c.

Relative criminal law

d.

Substantive criminal law

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 86              OBJ:   LO 8

 

43.                The Fourth Amendment protects against:

a.

Excessive bail

b.

Excessive fines

c.

Cruel and unusual punishment

d.

Unreasonable searches

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 86              OBJ:   LO 8

 

44.                This form of due process requires laws to be carried out in a fair and orderly manner.

a.

Legislative due process

b.

Procedural due process

c.

Relative due process

d.

Substantive due process

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 87              OBJ:   LO 8

 

45.                This form of due process is defined as the constitutional requirement that laws used in accusing and convicting persons of crimes must be fair.

a.

Legislative due process

b.

Procedural due process

c.

Relative due process

d.

Substantive due process

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 89              OBJ:   LO 8

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1.   The U.S. Constitution is the supreme law of the land and as such, it is the basis of all law in the United States.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 63              OBJ:   LO 1

 

2.   A state statute applies only within that state’s borders.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 63              OBJ:   LO 1

 

3.   Criminal law has one primary function: to express public morality.

 

ANS:  F                    REF:   p. 66              OBJ:   LO 2

 

4.   Society’s views on morality, which are reflected as laws, are stable and unchanging over time.

 

ANS:  F                    REF:   p. 67              OBJ:   LO 2

 

5.   Proceedings in civil court are normally initiated by the plaintiff.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 69              OBJ:   LO 3

 

6.   Most criminal cases involve a request for monetary damages in recognition that a wrong has been committed.

 

ANS:  F                    REF:   p. 69              OBJ:   LO 3

 

7.   Murder is a mala in se offense.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 72              OBJ:   LO 4

 

8.   Actus reus refers to guilty intent as an element of a crime.

 

ANS:  F                    REF:   p. 73              OBJ:   LO 5

 

9.   An inchoate offense is an attempted or incomplete offense.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 79              OBJ:   LO 5

 

10.                Defendants who are found “guilty but mentally ill” do not serve criminal sentences.

 

ANS:  F                    REF:   p. 82              OBJ:   LO 6

 

11.                Involuntary intoxication is a valid criminal defense.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 82-83         OBJ:   LO 6

 

12.                Duress, self-defense, entrapment, and necessity are examples of excuse defenses.

 

ANS:  F                    REF:   p. 85-86         OBJ:   LO 7

 

13.                Entrapment is a justification defense in which the offender claims that he or she was induced to commit the crime by a public official.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 86              OBJ:   LO 7

 

14.                Procedural criminal law defines the acts that the government will punish.

 

ANS:  F                    REF:   p. 86              OBJ:   LO 8

 

15.                Due process is addressed in the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution.

 

ANS:  T                    REF:   p. 87              OBJ:   LO 8

 

 

 

 

COMPLETION

 

1.   A statutory text created by the American Law Institute that sets forth general principles of criminal responsibility and defines specific offenses is the__________________________.

 

ANS:  Model Penal Code                REF:              p. 64   OBJ:               LO 1

 

2.   The burden of proof in the American criminal court system is ___________________.

 

ANS:  Beyond a reasonable doubt                                                REF:   p. 70              OBJ:   LO 3

 

3.   An offense motivated by bias is a ___________________.

 

ANS:  Hate Crime                                                            REF:              p. 79   OBJ:               LO 5

 

4.   Ordinarily ignorance of the law, or _______________________, is not a valid criminal defense.

 

ANS:  Mistake of law                                                                                                                              REF:   p. 83              OBJ:   LO 6

 

5.   The ____________ and __________ Amendments require that no one can be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law.

 

ANS:  Fifth and Fourteenth   REF:              p. 87   OBJ:               LO 8

 

ESSAY

 

1.   Identify and discuss the four written sources of American criminal law.

 

ANS:

 

o

The U.S. Constitution and the constitution of the various states is Constitutional Law. The U.S. Constitution is the supreme law of the land: state constitutions are supreme within state borders to the extent that they do not violate the U. S. Constitution or a federal law.

o

Statutes, or laws, passed by Congress and by state legislatures, plus local ordinances; statutory law is laws or ordinances created by federal, state, and local legislatures and governing bodies; none of these laws can violate the U.S. Constitution or the relevant state constitution; uniform laws, when adopted by a state legislature, become statutory law in that state.

o

Regulations created by regulatory agencies such as the Food and Drug Administration comprise administrative Law. This includes the rules, orders, and decisions of federal or state government administrative agencies; federal administrative agencies are created by enabling legislation enacted by U.S. Congress. Agency functions include rulemaking, investigation and enforcement, and adjudication.

o

Case law (court decisions) and common law doctrines are judge-made laws, including interpretations of constitutional provisions, of statutes enacted by legislatures, and of regulations created by administrative agencies.

 

 

REF:   p. 63-66         OBJ:   LO 1

 

 

 

2.   Explain the difference between crimes that are mala in se and crimes that are mala prohibita.

 

ANS:

 

o

Mala in se is considered wrong even if there is no law prohibiting it; this type of crime is said to go against “natural laws,” and includes acts of murder, rape, and theft.

o

Mala prohibita, refers to acts that are considered crimes only because they have been codified as such through statute – “human-made laws;” definitions of these crimes vary among societies.

 

 

REF:   p. 72-73         OBJ:   LO 4

 

3.   Explain how the doctrine of strict liability applies to criminal law.

 

ANS:

 

o

In certain cases, the law holds the defendant to be guilty even if criminal intent to commit the offense is lacking; this is called “strict liability.”

o

While strict liability is inconsistent with the concept of mens rea, it is designed to protect the public by eliminating the possibility that the offender may try to absolve him or herself of criminal culpability.

o

Most strict liability offenses involve endangering the public welfare in some way.

 

 

REF:   p. 76              OBJ:   LO 5

 

4.   Discuss the justification defenses of duress, self-defense, necessity, and entrapment. Describe a situation in which each defense may be used.

 

ANS:

 

o

Justification defenses are based on a defendant admitting that he or she committed the particular criminal act, but asserting that, under the circumstances, the criminal act was justified.

o

With a defense of duress, the defendant must prove that he or she performed the criminal act under the use or threat of use of unlawful force against his or her person that a reasonable person would have been unable to resist; for example, a mother assists her boyfriend in committing a burglary after he threatens to kill her children if she refuses to do so.

o

Self-defense claims that the defendant acted in a manner to defend himself or herself, others, or property, or to prevent a commission of a crime; for example, a husband awakens to find his wife standing over him, pointing a shotgun at his chest, and in the ensuing struggle, the firearm goes off, killing the wife.

o

The defense of necessity states that the criminal act the defendant committed was necessary in order to avoid a harm to himself or herself or to another that was greater than the harm caused by the act before; for example, four people physically remove a friend from her residence on the property of a religious cult, arguing that the crime of kidnapping was justified in order to remove the victim form the damaging influence of cult leaders.

o

The entrapment defense states that the defendant was encouraged by agents of the state to engage in a criminal act she or he would not have engaged in otherwise; for example, the owner of a boat marina agrees to allow three federal drug enforcement agents, posing as drug dealers, to use his dock to unload shipments of marijuana from Columbia.

 

 

REF:   p. 84-86         OBJ:   LO 7

 

5.   Explain the importance of the due process clause in the criminal justice system.

 

ANS:

 

o

The due process clause is contained in the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments.

o

The due process clause requires that the government not act unfairly or arbitrarily, but rather must stay within the boundaries of reason and law.

o

There are two types of due process are procedural due process and substantive due process.

 

 

REF:   p. 87              OBJ:   LO 8

 

Chapter 5—Challenges to Effective Policing

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.   Which of the following is NOT one of the basic requirements for becoming a police officer?

a.

Being a U.S. citizen

b.

Having no felony convictions

c.

Minimum height requirements

d.

Possession of or eligibility to obtain a driver’s license in the state where the police department is located

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 123            OBJ:   LO 1

 

2.   Today, ____ percent of all local police departments require a degree from a two-year college.

a.

18

b.

12

c.

9

d.

4

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 124            OBJ:   LO 1

 

3.   The segment of a police recruit’s training that takes place on the beat is referred to in the text as:

a.

A practicum

b.

An internship

c.

Probation

d.

Field training

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 125            OBJ:   LO 1

 

4.   Generally speaking, the minimum age to become a police officer is ____:

a.

18

b.

20

c.

21

d.

25

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 123            OBJ:   LO 1

 

5.   Minority representation in American police departments has increased to roughly ____:

a.

10%

b.

16%

c.

24%

d.

53%

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 125            OBJ:   LO 2

 

6.   Many police departments recognize that the benefit of a diverse police department is:

a.

A decline in criminal offending

b.

Improved community relations

c.

Improved response rates

d.

Increased clearance rates

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   126                OBJ:   LO 2

 

7.   Often, the ____ serves to legally discriminate against female applicants for police officer positions.

a.

Visual acuity test

b.

Physical fitness test

c.

Height standard

d.

Body mass index standard

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 126            OBJ:   LO 2

 

8.   What is the ultimate goal of a bureaucratic organization, such as a police department?

a.

Administration development

b.

Efficiency

c.

Low employee turnover

d.

Work satisfaction for the employee

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 127            OBJ:   LO 3

 

9.   As many as ____ of sworn officers, or those officers authorized to make arrests and use force, in some large police departments are patrol officers.

a.

1/4

b.

1/3

c.

1/2

d.

2/3

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 129            OBJ:   LO 3

 

10.                Which of the following is NOT a purpose of police patrol listed in the text?

a.

Deterrence of crime

b.

Maintenance of public order

c.

Improvement of public attitudes towards the police

d.

Provision of services that are not crime related

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 130            OBJ:   LO 3

 

11.                Which patrol function focuses on maintaining a presence in the community, either in a car or on foot, which allows attempts at preventing crime from occurring?

a.

Administrative duties

b.

Calls for service

c.

Officer-initiated activities

d.

Preventive patrol

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 131            OBJ:   LO 3

 

12.                The majority of a patrol officer’s time is spent on:

a.

Preventive patrol

b.

Calls for service

c.

Administrative duties

d.

Officer-initiated activities

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 131            OBJ:   LO 3

 

 

13.                Paperwork takes up to ____ of a patrol officer’s time.

a.

20%

b.

40%

c.

60%

d.

80%

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 131            OBJ:   LO 3

 

14.                After a crime has been committed and the patrol officer has gathered preliminary information from a crime scene, the responsibility of identifying the offender is delegated to the:

a.

Detective

b.

Internal affairs unit

c.

Patrol officer

d.

Police chief

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 131            OBJ:   LO 3

 

15.                The most common way for someone to become a detective is to ___________________.

a.

Attend graduate school in criminal justice

b.

Attend specialized training in the field

c.

Earn an undergraduate college degree

d.

Be promoted from patrol officer

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 131            OBJ:   LO 3

 

16.                After a crime has been committed and the patrol officer has gathered preliminary information from a crime scene, the responsibility of identifying the offender is delegated to the:

a.

Detective

b.

International affairs unit

c.

Patrol officer

d.

Police chief

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 131            OBJ:   LO 3

 

17.                What is the second main function of police, along with patrol?

a.

Administration

b.

Bureaucratic organization

c.

Internal Affairs

d.

Investigation

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 131            OBJ:   LO 3

 

18.                Aggressive investigation strategies include:

a.

Crackdowns

b.

Undercover operations

c.

Roadblocks

d.

Increased patrol of hot spots

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 132            OBJ:   LO 4

 

 

19.                A person who is involved in criminal activity and provides information about that activity and those who engage in it to the police is a(n):

a.

Confidential informant

b.

Undercover police officer

c.

Witness

d.

Vice detective

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 132            OBJ:   LO 4

 

20.                The term “clearance rate” refers to:

a.

The percentage of reported crimes

b.

The percentage of crimes that result in arrest and prosecution

c.

The percentage of crimes that result in a criminal conviction

d.

The percentage of stolen goods that are returned to victims of crime

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 133            OBJ:   LO 4

 

21.                Criminal investigations that are not cleared after a certain amount of time are referred to as __________.

a.

Closed cases

b.

Cold cases

c.

Unsolved cases

d.

Unfounded cases

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 133            OBJ:   LO 4

 

22.                DNA is ____ in each cell of a person’s body, and provides a “genetic blueprint” or “code” for that person.

a.

Different

b.

The opposite

c.

The same

d.

Similar

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 135            OBJ:   LO 4

 

23.                The establishment of a connection between a suspect and a crime, often through the use of DNA evidence, in the absence of an ongoing investigation is a(n):

a.

Proactive solve

b.

Clearance rate

c.

Random hit

d.

Cold hit

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 136            OBJ:   LO 4

 

24.                A database containing the DNA of more than 4.5 million people is:

a.

CODIS

b.

AFIS

c.

IBIS

d.

NCVS

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 136            OBJ:   LO 4

 

25.                For more than a century the most important piece of trace evidence has been ____________.

a.

DNA

b.

The human fingerprint

c.

Human hair

d.

Blood evidence

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 133            OBJ:   LO 4

 

26.                A reactive approach to policing that emphasizes a speedy response to calls for service is:

a.

Community policing

b.

Directed policing

c.

Problem-oriented policing

d.

Incident-driven policing

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 137            OBJ:   LO 5

 

27.                Time elapsed between the instant a call for service is received and the instant a police officer arrives on the scene, otherwise referred to as ____, has become a benchmark for police efficiency.

a.

Differential response

b.

Directed patrol

c.

Incident-driven policing

d.

Response time

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   p. 137            OBJ:   LO 5

 

28.                In which type of patrol do officers make the rounds of a specific area with the purpose of carrying out the various patrol functions?

a.

Directed

b.

Incident-driven

c.

General

d.

Scattered

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 138            OBJ:   LO 5

 

29.                The Kansas City Experiment showed that decreasing preventive patrol:

a.

Had little or no impact on crime

b.

Decreased crime

c.

Increased crime

d.

Increased the number of reported offenses

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 138            OBJ:   LO 5

 

30.                An area that is concentrated with high criminal activity to which there is a directed police response is a:

a.

Ghetto

b.

Heavy spot

c.

Hot spot

d.

Slum

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 139            OBJ:   LO 5

 

 

31.                What type of technology is utilized by police departments to locate and identify hot spots?

a.

Arrest rates

b.

Crime mapping

c.

Preventive patrol

d.

Rapid response

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 139            OBJ:   LO 5

 

32.                The “broken windows theory” is based on the theory that by cracking down on ____ crimes, police can significantly reduce all crime in an area.

a.

Felony

b.

Property

c.

Quality-of-life

d.

Violent

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   p. 140            OBJ:   LO 5

 

33.                The directed patrol of hot spots is associated with ______________________.

a.

Reactive arrests

b.

Proactive arrests

c.

Directed arrests

d.

Responsive arrests

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   p. 139            OBJ:   LO 5

 

34.                A policing philosophy that moves beyond responding to incidents and attempts to solve the root causes of criminal behavior is ___________________________.

a.

Problem-oriented policing

b.

Community policing

c.

Incident-driving policing

d.

Proactive policing

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   p. 141            OBJ:   LO 5

 

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