Essentials of Criminal Justice International Edition 8th Edition by Larry J. Siegel – Test Bank
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TEST BANK
Chapter 3
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. American
civil law is primarily concerned with:
|
a. |
compensating the injured party for
harm. |
|
b. |
protecting the public against harm. |
|
c. |
Controlling social values and mores. |
|
d. |
Contracting legal obligations between
aggrieved individuals. |
ANS:
A
REF: p.
54
OBJ: 01
2. The
branch of law that defines crimes and their punishment?
|
a. |
Martial Law |
|
b. |
Substantive criminal law |
|
c. |
Civil Law |
|
d. |
Public Law |
ANS:
B
REF: p.
54
OBJ: 01
3. Which
of the following statements does not apply to criminal law?
|
a. |
Crime is a public offense. |
|
b. |
The right of enforcement belongs to the
state. |
|
c. |
Fines go to the state. |
|
d. |
Both parties can appeal. |
ANS:
D
REF: p.
54
OBJ: 01
4. The
law today can generally be divided into four broad categories. Which of the
following is not one of these categories?
|
a. |
Procedural criminal law |
|
b. |
Substantive criminal law |
|
c. |
Civil law |
|
d. |
Procedural civil law |
ANS:
D
REF: p.
53
OBJ: 02
5. Which
of the following is not a source of criminal law?
|
a. |
Common law |
|
b. |
Biblical decree |
|
c. |
Statutes |
|
d. |
Case decisions |
ANS:
B
REF: p. 56-57 OBJ:
03
6. Regardless
of its source, all criminal laws in the U.S. must conform to the rules and
dictates of the:
|
a. |
U.S. Attorney’s Office |
|
b. |
U.S. Court of Appeals |
|
c. |
United States Senate |
|
d. |
U.S. Constitution |
ANS:
D
REF: p.
56
OBJ: 03
7. The
term stare
decisis means:
|
a. |
an eye for an eye. |
|
b. |
inherently evil. |
|
c. |
a statute created by a legislative
body. |
|
d. |
to stand by decided cases. |
ANS:
D
REF: p.
55
OBJ: 04
8. Sue
has committed robbery with deadly weapon. This would be considered a __________
crime
9. Mala
in se
10.
Nolo Prequi
11.
Mala Prohibitum
12.
Civil
ANS:
A
REF: p.
56
OBJ: 04
9. What
is the most common definition of a felony?
|
a. |
A crime punishable in the statute by
death or imprisonment in a state prison. |
|
b. |
Any crime punishable by imprisonment in
a jail or state prison. |
|
c. |
A crime punishable by grand jury
indictment. |
|
d. |
Any crime for which one can be
imprisoned for more than three years in prison. |
ANS:
A
REF: p.
58
OBJ: 04
10.
Which of the following is not legally considered a crime?
|
a. |
Manufacturing dangerous drugs |
|
b. |
Selling dangerous drugs |
|
c. |
Being addicted to dangerous drugs |
|
d. |
All of these are legally considered
crimes. |
ANS:
C
REF: p. 62
OBJ: 04
11.
Which of the following statements is false regarding the
comparison of felonies and misdemeanors?
|
a. |
A felony is an offense generally
punishable by death or imprisonment in a penitentiary, whereas a misdemeanor
is generally punishable by a fine or imprisonment elsewhere than in a
penitentiary. |
|
b. |
A person convicted of a felony may be
barred from certain fields of employment or some professions, whereas a
person convicted of a misdemeanor is not. |
|
c. |
An arrest for a felony or misdemeanor
may be made regardless of whether the crime was committed in the officer’s
presence, as long as the officer had reasonable grounds to believe that the
person committed the crime. |
|
d. |
Distinguishing between a felony and a
misdemeanor is sometimes difficult. |
ANS:
C
REF:
p.58
OBJ: 04
12.
The individual’s state of mind or intent to commit a crime is
formally referred to as:
|
a. |
stare decisis |
|
b. |
mala in se |
|
c. |
mens rea |
|
d. |
actus reus |
ANS: C
REF: p.
63
OBJ: 04
13.
The term actus
reus refers to the:
|
a. |
measurement of mental ability |
|
b. |
exclusion of omission |
|
c. |
guilty person |
|
d. |
guilty act |
ANS:
D
REF: p.
63
OBJ: 04
14.
Certain statutory offenses exist in which mens rea is
not essential. These offenses fall within a category known as:
|
a. |
torts. |
|
b. |
strict liability crimes. |
|
c. |
mala in se crimes. |
|
d. |
stare decisis. |
ANS:
B
REF: p. 60
OBJ: 05
15.
Narcotics control laws, health and safety regulations, and
sanitation laws are examples of what legal principle?
|
a. |
Recklessness |
|
b. |
Criminal negligence |
|
c. |
Malice |
|
d. |
Strict liability |
ANS: D
REF: p.
60
OBJ: 05
16.
Individuals that claim insanity as a criminal defense, may not
have the ability to form __________.
17.
mala in se
18.
mens rea
19.
actus reus
20.
stare decisis
ANS:
B
REF: p. 60
OBJ: 04
17.
The defense of mistake ultimately rests on proving a(n):
|
a. |
presumption of guilt |
|
b. |
lack of intent |
|
c. |
existence of extenuating circumstances |
|
d. |
post facto affirmative presumption of
innocence due to entrapment |
ANS: B
REF: p.
62
OBJ: 06
18.
The effect of intoxication upon criminal liability depends on:
|
a. |
the type of intoxicant used. |
|
b. |
whether the defendant uses drugs or
alcohol voluntarily. |
|
c. |
whether the consumption of intoxicant
began prior to the crime. |
|
d. |
whether the defendant has prior
convictions. |
ANS:
B
REF: p. 60-61 OBJ:
06
19.
Intoxication and age are examples of what?
|
a. |
Legal defenses used to negate the
required proof of mens
rea |
|
b. |
Legal defenses that negate the required
proof of actus reus |
|
c. |
Defenses based on double jeopardy |
|
d. |
Legal defenses based on a presumption
of conclusive incapacitation |
ANS:
A
REF: p.
61
OBJ: 06
20.
Which standard of the insanity defense excuses a person whose
mental disease makes it impossible to control their conduct?
|
a. |
Durham Rule |
|
b. |
Products Test |
|
c. |
M’Naghten Rule |
|
d. |
Irresistible Impulse Test |
ANS:
D
REF: p. 63
OBJ: 06
21.
Which standard solely considers whether the accused is able to
distinguish right from wrong?
|
a. |
The Durham rule |
|
b. |
The substantial capacity test |
|
c. |
The M’Naghten rule |
|
d. |
The irresistible impulse test |
ANS: C
REF: p.
63
OBJ: 06
22.
Under common law, there was a conclusive presumption of
incapacity for a child under ____ years of age.
|
a. |
7 |
|
b. |
10 |
|
c. |
14 |
|
d. |
18 |
ANS:
A
REF: p.
62
OBJ: 06
23.
Crime is generally grouped into three basic categories, they
are;
24.
Felonies, misdemeanors, and violations
25.
Mala Prohibitum crimes, felonies, and violations
26.
Violations, ordinances, and felonies
27.
Misdemeanors, violations, and Ordinances
ANS:
A
REF: p.
58
OBJ: 03
24.
Which legal standard of mental illness is used by present
federal law?
|
a. |
“Didn’t know what he was doing or
didn’t know it was wrong.” |
|
b. |
“Could not control his conduct.” |
|
c. |
“Lacks substantial capacity to
appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to control it.” |
|
d. |
“Lacks capacity to appreciate the
wrongfulness of his conduct.” |
ANS:
D
REF: p. 60-61 OBJ:
06
25.
Which of the following is true regarding the “stand your ground”
justification defense?
|
a. |
Most self-defense statutes require a
duty to retreat before reacting to a threat with physical violence. |
|
b. |
The “castle exception” does not require
an obligation to retreat within an individual’s residence before fighting
back. |
|
c. |
“Stand your ground” laws allow average
citizens to use deadly force when they reasonably believe that their homes or
vehicles have been illegally invaded. |
|
d. |
All of the above are true regarding the
“stand your ground” justification defense. |
ANS:
D
REF: p.
64
OBJ: 06
26.
The exclusionary rule is used as part of which protection
afforded to the accused by the US Constitution?
27.
2nd Amendment
28.
1st. Amendment
29.
4th Amendment
30.
8th Amendment
ANS: C
REF: p.
68
OBJ: 08
27.
What element must be present in order for the excuse of
necessity to be valid?
|
a. |
The victim consented. |
|
b. |
No means of escape were available. |
|
c. |
The harm to be avoided was greater than
the offense charged. |
|
d. |
The offense was based on a presumptive
conclusion of mens
rea. |
ANS:
C
REF: p.
61
OBJ: 06
28.
A bank employee is forced to divert funds into a special account
and failure to cooperate will result in the execution of his family. Which
defense would be most applicable to this situation?
|
a. |
Duress |
|
b. |
Entrapment |
|
c. |
Necessity |
|
d. |
Consent |
ANS:
A
REF: p.
101
OBJ: 06
29.
After formal legal codes were lost during the dark ages a legal
system featuring monetary compensation called ____________ was developed for
criminal violations.
30.
Stare Decisis
31.
Lex Talionis
c.Wergild
1. Friedengild
ANS:
C
REF: p.
55
OBJ 01
30.
Which constitutional amendment outlaws illegal searches and
seizures by police?
|
a. |
First |
|
b. |
Fourth |
|
c. |
Fifth |
|
d. |
Eighth |
ANS:
B
REF: p.
67
OBJ: 09
TRUE/FALSE
1. The
roots of criminal law in the United States can be directly traced to the Bible.
ANS:
F
REF: p.
55
OBJ: 01
2. Feticide
Law makes killing of an unborn fetus murder.
ANS:
T
REF: p.
56
OBJ: 02
3. An
immediate relationship must always exist between the act and the actor’s intent
for a crime to occur.
ANS:
F
REF: p.
60
OBJ: 04
4. Entrapment
is a defense against criminal culpability that is found in the Bill of Rights.
ANS:
F
REF: p. 61
OBJ: 06
5. Self-defense
as a justification requires imminent danger.
ANS:
T
REF: p.
63
OBJ: 06
6. The
ideas and principles that society considers important at a given time and in a
given place have no bearing on a court’s decision on what exactly constitutes
due process in a specific case.
ANS:
F
REF: p.
64
OBJ: 10
7. Until
recently, sexual relations between consenting same-sex adults was punished as a
serious felony.
ANS:
T
REF: p.
65
OBJ: 07
8. Community
notification laws are used to inform neighborhoods and families that there has
been a formal complaint has been filed for harassment.
ANS:
F
REF: p. 65
OBJ: 06
9. The
Fourth Amendment limits the admissibility of confessions that have been
obtained unfairly.
ANS:
F
REF: p.
67
OBJ: 08
10.
The CAN SPAM Act is legislation that attempts to reduce the
amount of processed food that can be bought and sold to those that receive
government assistance
ANS:
F
REF: 53 OBJ:
01
COMPLETION
1. The
primary concern of ___________ is the control and regulation of human interaction.
ANS:
law
REF: p.
56
OBJ: 01
2. After
the Norman conquest of England in 1066, royal judges would decide what to do in
each case using local custom and rules of conduct as a guide in a system known
as ___________.
ANS: stare
decisis
REF:
p.55
OBJ: 03
3. A law
that inflicts a greater punishment than was available when the crime was
committed is termed a(n) ____________________ law.
ANS: ex post
facto
REF: p.57
OBJ: 04
4. The
Durham Rule is associated with the ____________________ defense.
ANS:
insanity
REF: p. 63
OBJ: 06
5. In
response to the concerns of environmentalists, the federal government has
passed _______________________ acts to protect the nation’s well being
ANS: Protect the
Environment
REF:
p.66
OBJ: 06
6. The
defense of ____________________ would be appropriate in a case where a person
was rushing to the hospital with an emergency and broke numerous traffic laws
along the way.
ANS:
necessity
REF: p. 64-65 OBJ:
06
7. The
____________________ Amendment was the basis for the Miranda decision.
ANS: Fifth (5th)
REF: p. 67
OBJ: 09
8. The
____________________ Amendment has been used in the past to argue that the
death penalty is cruel and unusual punishment.
ANS: Eighth (8th)
REF: p. 67
OBJ: 09
9. The
____________________ Amendment outlaws excessive bail.
ANS: Eighth (8th)
REF: p.
67
OBJ: 09
10.
Under the _______________ evidence seized in violation of the 4th amendment
cannot be used in a court of law.
ANS: Exclusionary
rule
REF: p.68
OBJ 08
ESSAY
1. Differentiate
between criminal law and civil law.
ANS: In
criminal law there are both substantive criminal law which defines crimes and
their punishment and procedural criminal law which sets out the basic rules of
practice in the criminal justice system. On the other hand civil law the set of
rules governing relations between private parties.
REF: p.
54
OBJ: 01
2. Define
the concept of substantive criminal law and detail its history.
ANS: Substantive criminal law defines crimes and their
punishment. The goals include;
1.
Enforce social control
2.
Distribute retribution
3.
Express public opinion and morality
4.
Deter criminal behavior
5.
Punish wrongdoing
6.
Maintain social order
7.
Restoration
Roots
of criminal codes in U.S. can be traced back to the Babylonian Code of
Hammurabi, the Mosaic Code of the Israelites, the Roman Twelve Tables, and
Justinian’s Corpus
Juris Civilis
REF: p.
54
OBJ: 02
3. Discuss
the historical development of criminal law.
ANS:
Early formal legal codes were lost during the Dark Ages after the fall of Rome
and were replaced with common law and the principle of stare decisis. The
present English system of law came into existence during reign of Henry II.
Under this system a royal judge would decide what to do in each case, using
local custom and rules of conduct as guide; known as stare decisis. The
judges then began to publish their decisions in local cases, use these written
decisions as a basis for decision making, and eventually produced a fixed body
of legal rules and principles.
REF: p.
55
OBJ: 03
4. Delineate
the legal elements required to constitute a crime. Describe and give an example
of each of the classifications of crime.
ANS:
For the state to prove a crime occurred, and that the defendant committed
it, the prosecutor must show that the accused engaged in the guilty act (actus
reus) and had the intent to commit the act (mens rea). Actus reus is a
voluntary and deliberate illegal act or an unintentional act can be considered
a crime if it is the result of negligence and/or disregard for the rights of
others. Mens Rea otherwise known as criminal intent is implied if the results
of an action, though originally unintended, are certain to occur.
REF: p.
58
OBJ: 04
5. Explain
three legal excuses and three justifications for crime and provide an example
of each.
ANS:
Insanity is a defense to criminal prosecution in which a defendant’s state of
mind negates criminal responsibility. This may be the case that is still to be
decided in the shooting of Arizona congresswoman Gabrielle Giffords by Jared
Lee Loughner. In Self-defense the defendant must have acted under a reasonable belief
that he/she was in danger of death or great harm and had no means of escape
from the assailant. This may be the case when a burglary occurs and the
homeowner shoots the intruder after he/she has assaulted and attempted harm of
the homeowner in the process of the burglary. Entrapment occurs when the police
instigate the crime, implant criminal ideas, and coerce individuals into
bringing about crime. This often occurs in sting operations to bring down
prostitution rings.
REF: p.
61-65 OBJ: 06
6. Describe
three tests of the insanity defense and how each is applied.
ANS:
The The M’Naghten rule is used when the basic question is whether the defendant
knew that their actions were wrong. If the prosecution can convince the court
that their was knowledge on behalf of the suspect that he/she was wrong then it
may move onto the irresistible impulse test. This test looks at whether or not
the defendant could control their actions regardless of whether they knew right
from wrong. Finally the durham rule or “product test” states that the the
accused is not criminally responsible if her unlawful act was a product of
mental disease or defect.
REF: p.
61-62 OBJ: 06
7. Discuss
the premise and outcome of the 2008 case of Baze and Bowling v.Rees
ANS: In Baze and Bowling v. Rees the
court upheld the use of lethal injection as a method of execution unless there
is a “substantial risk of serious harm” that the drugs used will not work
effectively.
REF: p.
68
OBJ: 07
8. Discuss
one of the Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, or Eighth Amendments and how it serves to
limit and control the manner in which the federal government operates the
justice system.
ANS: The Fourth amendment bars illegal “searches and seizures”
by police officers. The Fifth Amendment limits the admissibility of confessions
that have been obtained unfairly or without proper warning. The Sixth amendment
guarantees the defendant the right to a speedy and public trial by an impartial
jury, the right to be informed of the nature of charges against them and the
right to confront any prosecution witnesses. The Eighth amendment protects
against the imposition of excessive bail and fines as well as the potential of
the infliction of cruel and unusual punishment.
REF: p.
67-68 OBJ: 09
9. Elaborate
the meaning of due process through the use of an example.
ANS: The concept of due process, found both in the 5th and 14th
amendments has been used to evaluate the constitutionality of legal statutes
and to set standards and guidelines for fair procedures in the criminal justice
system. For example, there is a concern that the Patriot act that permits the
government to share information from grand jury proceedings and from criminal
wiretaps with intelligence agencies. These practices have the potential to
erode civil rights, and therefore additional provisions were enacted in 2006 to
ensure that the Act did not violate those civil rights by limiting its
surveillance and wiretap authorizations.
REF: p.
67
OBJ: 10
10.
Describe the importance of procedural due process. List the
procedural due process rights that are guaranteed to an individual.
ANS: Procedural due process seeks to ensure that no person will
be deprived of life, liberty, or property without a proper and legal criminal
process. It is intended to guarantee fundamental fairness and can be seen in;
The freedom from illegal searches and interrogations
- Prompt
notice of charges and a formal hearing
- The
right to counsel
- The
opportunity to respond to charges
- The
opportunity to confront and cross examine witnesses
- The
privilege to be free from self incrimination
- The
opportunity to present ones own witness
- A
decision made on the basis of substantial evidence
- A
written statement of the reasons for the decision
- An
appellate review procedure
REF: p.
67-68 OBJ: 10
TEST BANK
Chapter 5
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Regardless
of the size of the policing organization this person has general administrative
control and sets policy for all of the department’s operating branches
|
a. |
Democratic Appointee |
|
b. |
CompStat |
|
c. |
Chief of Police |
|
d. |
Chief of Hot Spots |
ANS: C
REF: p. 95 OBJ: 01
2. How
do most municipal police departments determine promotion eligibility?
|
a. |
Intelligence testing |
|
b. |
Physical agility |
|
c. |
Arrest performance |
|
d. |
Time-in-rank |
ANS: D
REF: p. 95 OBJ: 01
3. The
time-in-rank system used in police departments often discourages the:
|
a. |
recruitment and hiring of
college-educated officers. |
|
b. |
recruitment and hiring of minority
officers. |
|
c. |
transfer of experienced officers to
other departments. |
|
d. |
use of a military-like organizational
structure. |
ANS: C
REF: p. 95 OBJ: 01
4. More
than half of the contact that police officers engage in with civilians is
spent?
|
a. |
Catching Criminals |
|
b. |
handling traffic related matters |
|
c. |
Ferreting out drug deals |
|
d. |
Investigating crime |
ANS: B
REF: p. 96 OBJ: 01
5. UCR
data suggests that the average police officer makes less than one felony arrest
every ____ months.
|
a. |
2 |
|
b. |
4 |
|
c. |
6 |
|
d. |
8 |
ANS: B
REF: p. 96 OBJ: 02
6. Which
of the following is not one of the major purposes of police patrol?
|
a. |
Deter crime through police presence |
|
b. |
Aid individuals who cannot help themselves |
|
c. |
Facilitate the movement of traffic and
people |
|
d. |
Issue arrest warrants |
ANS: D
REF: p. 96-97 OBJ: 03
7. Jurisdictions
that encourage patrol officers to aggressively arrest and detain suspicious
persons experience lower crime rates than other jurisdictions that do not
practice this type of policing?
|
a. |
Reactive |
|
b. |
Neighborhood Snitching |
|
c. |
Preventive |
|
d. |
Proactive |
ANS: D
REF: p. 98 OBJ: 03
8. While
there are many goals of patrol, most police experts agree that the majority of
police patrol efforts are devoted to:
|
a. |
crime fighting. |
|
b. |
order maintenance. |
|
c. |
responding to emergencies. |
|
d. |
deterring crime. |
ANS: B
REF: p. 100 OBJ: 03
9. What
was the principle finding of the Kansas City study?
|
a. |
It is significant what type of patrol
model you implement. |
|
b. |
There is little evidence that police
patrol deters crime. |
|
c. |
Patrol techniques can have a
significant impact on citizens’ attitudes. |
|
d. |
Patrol techniques can significantly
impact citizens’ satisfaction with police. |
ANS: B
REF: p. 98-99 OBJ: 03
10.
____ policing is a department policy that emphasizes stopping
crimes before they occur rather than reacting to crimes that have already
occurred.
|
a. |
Community |
|
b. |
Proactive |
|
c. |
Deterrent |
|
d. |
Reactive |
ANS: B
REF: p. 98 OBJ: 04
11.
Based on research like the Kansas City study, what is the
prevailing wisdom on preventive patrols?
|
a. |
The number of patrol cars on the street
and their visibility to citizens has little impact on the crime rate. |
|
b. |
More patrol cars on the street can
deter specific types of crime, such as motor vehicle theft and vandalism. |
|
c. |
Fewer patrol cars on the street results
in higher crime rates. |
|
d. |
Patrol cars should be assigned to a
reactive response mode only. |
ANS: A
REF: p. 98 OBJ: 04
12.
Aggressive patrol in New York City during the 1990s has been
credited with a reduction in:
|
a. |
prostitution |
|
b. |
violent crime |
|
c. |
drug dealing |
|
d. |
property crime |
ANS: B
REF: p. 98-99 OBJ: 04
13.
The Kansas City Gun Experiment is an example of:
|
a. |
problem-oriented policing. |
|
b. |
community policing. |
|
c. |
reactive patrolling. |
|
d. |
a police crackdown targeting a specific
type of crime problem. |
ANS: D
REF: p. 98-99 OBJ: 04
14.
Which of the following is a method of improving patrol?
|
a. |
Aggressive patrol |
|
b. |
Targeting specific crimes |
|
c. |
Making more arrests |
|
d. |
All of these |
ANS: D
REF: p. 98-100 OBJ: 04
15.
The statement “Aggressive policing increases community
perception that police arrest many criminals and therefore most violators get
caught” is an example of what?
16.
a deterrent effect
17.
a proactive effect
18.
an aggressive effect
19.
sheer luck
ANS:
A REF: p.
98 OBJ: 04
16.
What was a result of the Kansas City Gun Experiment?
|
a. |
There was a measurable effect on gun
crimes in the target area during the experiment. |
|
b. |
Assaults on police officers increased
in the target area. |
|
c. |
Gun crimes in the target area
marginally increased. |
|
d. |
Gun crimes were displaced to contiguous
beats. |
ANS: A
REF: p. 98-99 OBJ: 04
17.
Which of the following statements is true?
|
a. |
Criminal investigation is a key element
of police work. |
|
b. |
Detectives are often handicapped by
limited time, money, and resources. |
|
c. |
Modern criminal investigators are
usually knowledgeable about legal rules of evidence and procedure. |
|
d. |
All of these statements are true |
ANS: D
REF: p. 101-104 OBJ: 05
18.
The vice squad specializes in:
|
a. |
violent crime |
|
b. |
property crime |
|
c. |
crimes of public morals |
|
d. |
sex crime |
ANS: C
REF: p. 103 OBJ: 05
19.
What is the term used to describe organized groups of detectives
who deceive criminals into openly committing illegal acts or conspiring to
engage in criminal activity?
|
a. |
Detective bureau |
|
b. |
Sting operations |
|
c. |
Community policing |
|
d. |
Proactive patrol |
ANS: B
REF: p. 103 OBJ: 05
20.
In Martin Innes’ study of investigation techniques he found that
police rely heavily on _________ that includes canvas of neighborhoods,
interviews with friends/family and constructing victim/suspect timelines to
solve a crime.
21.
Specific Focus
22.
General coverage
23.
Technology and Crime Mapping
24.
PERF
ANS: B
REF: 101 OBJ: 05
21.
Which of the following is a commonly cited source of ineffective
investigation?
|
a. |
Length of investigation |
|
b. |
Poor sources of information |
|
c. |
Poor follow-up on initial calls for
service |
|
d. |
All of these |
ANS: D
REF: p. 104 OBJ: 05
22.
Community policing is often exemplified by which of the
following models?
|
a. |
Broken windows |
|
b. |
Shattered promises |
|
c. |
Urban decay |
|
d. |
Urban blight |
ANS: A
REF: p. 106-107 OBJ: 07
23.
Which of the following is not a fundamental assumption of the
broken windows model?
|
a. |
Neighborhood disorder creates fear. |
|
b. |
Neighborhoods can give out
crime-promoting signals. |
|
c. |
Police require citizen cooperation. |
|
d. |
Reactive patrol is necessary. |
ANS: D
REF: p. 99-100 OBJ: 04
24.
Which of the following is not a focus of community policing?
|
a. |
Order maintenance |
|
b. |
Emergency service |
|
c. |
Crime fighting |
|
d. |
Problem solving |
ANS: C
REF: p. 106-107 OBJ: 07
25.
Community oriented policing links police effectiveness to:
|
a. |
productive interaction with the
community being served. |
|
b. |
interrelationships between cooperative
police agencies. |
|
c. |
efficient utilization of existing
personnel. |
|
d. |
optimized usage of advanced technology. |
ANS: A
REF: p. 106-107 OBJ: 07
26.
Which of the following police operations best exemplifies
community oriented policing?
|
a. |
A sting operation where officers pose
as fences of stolen property |
|
b. |
Creation of a well armed SWAT team
trained in hostage negotiation |
|
c. |
Computerized data terminals installed
on the dash of all patrol cars |
|
d. |
The hiring of bilingual officers to
patrol ethnic neighborhoods |
ANS: D
REF: p. 106-109 OBJ: 07
27.
What have evaluations of foot patrol programs in New Jersey and
Michigan demonstrated?
|
a. |
The crime rate went down in foot patrol
beats. |
|
b. |
The crime rate went up in foot patrol
beats. |
|
c. |
Officer job satisfaction increased. |
|
d. |
Citizen attitudes toward the police
improved. |
ANS: D
REF: p. 106-112 OBJ: 03
28.
The concept of hot spots of crime is most closely associated
with which model of policing?
|
a. |
Community-oriented policing (COP) |
|
b. |
Neighborhood oriented policing (NOP) |
|
c. |
Problem-oriented policing (POP) |
|
d. |
Police-community relations (PCR) |
ANS: C
REF: p. 112 OBJ: 08
29.
What is Operation Ceasefire?
|
a. |
A problem-oriented policing program in
Boston to get guns off the street |
|
b. |
A community-oriented policing program
in Chicago aimed at auto theft |
|
c. |
A crime mapping program in Dallas
designed to plot gun crimes |
|
d. |
A civilian review board initiative in
New York |
ANS: C
REF: p. 112-113 OBJ: 10
30.
What is the name of the police support unit that is responsible
for investigating allegations of police misconduct?
|
a. |
Internal Affairs |
|
b. |
Personnel Services |
|
c. |
Civilian Review Boards |
|
d. |
Field-training Offices |
ANS: A
REF: p. 113-114 OBJ: 10
31.
Which of the following is not one of the administrative problems
of community policing?
|
a. |
Defining community |
|
b. |
Re-orienting police values |
|
c. |
Revising training |
|
d. |
Reducing police corruption |
ANS: D
REF: p. 106-109 OBJ: 07
32.
According to your text, an example of problem oriented policing
would be;
33.
POP
34.
B-PAD
35.
CompStat
d.NAS
ANS: A REF: p. 112-113 OBJ:
07
TRUE/FALSE
1. College
degrees may have little direct impact on promotion potentials for police
officers.
ANS: T
REF: p. 95 OBJ: 01
2. The average
police officer can expect to make between 10 and 15 arrests per month for
serious crimes.
ANS: F
REF: p. 96 OBJ: 02
3. The
detective bureau is considered the backbone of policing.
ANS: F
REF: p. 96-97 OBJ: 05
4. Creating
a feeling of security is one of the major purposes of police patrol.
ANS: T
REF: p. 96-97 OBJ: 03
5. Proactive
policing is a cornerstone of community policing.
ANS: T
REF: p. 98 OBJ: 04
6. One
reason for investigative ineffectiveness is that there are too many competing
interests to solve a case within the police department.
ANS: F
REF:
p.104 OBJ: 05
7. Vice
squads target violent crime.
ANS: F
REF: p. 103 OBJ: 05
8. Evaluations
of foot patrol indicate that it lowers crime rates.
ANS: F
REF: p. 109-110 OBJ: 04
9. Length
of investigation is associated with success of investigation operations.
ANS: T
REF: p. 104 OBJ: 05
10.
According to the “broken windows” concept, police need citizen
cooperation.
ANS: T
REF: p. 99-100 OBJ: 04
COMPLETION
1. Most
promotions in policing have ____________________ requirements.
ANS:
time-in-rank
REF: p. 95 OBJ: 01
2. Designated
police patrol areas are called ____________________.
ANS:
beats
REF: p.
109 OBJ: 03
3. ____________________
is another term for the order maintenance function of police.
ANS: Peacekeeping
REF: p. 97 OBJ: 03
4. Begun
in New York City __________is/was a means of directing police efforts in a more
productive way.
ANS:
CompStat
REF: p. 100 OBJ: 03
5. One
aggressive patrol program, known as the ____________________, was directed at
restricting the carrying of guns in high-risk places at high-risk times.
ANS: Kansas City Gun Experiment REF: p. 98-99 OBJ:
03
6. ____________________
is an aggressive law enforcement style that emphasizes attacking crimes head-on
and in advance rather than waiting for calls for service.
ANS: Proactive
policing
REF: p. 98 OBJ: 03
7. ____________________
are groups of police officers who enforce morality-based laws such as prostitution.
ANS: Vice
squads
REF: p. 103 OBJ: 05
8. A(n)
____________________ is an operation designed to encourage and observe criminal
behavior so the officers can make an arrest.
ANS:
sting
REF: p. 103
OBJ: 05
9. ____________________
policing strategies require police agencies to identify particular long-term
community issues and to develop strategies to eliminate these issues.
ANS:
Problem-oriented
REF: p. 112 OBJ: 08
10.
Forensic means __________________
ANS: Pertaining to the law
REF: p. 106 OBJ: 05
ESSAY
1. Is
the time-in-rank system of police promotion an antiquated practice? What are
its advantages and disadvantages?
ANS: Because most departments are civil service organizations,
administrators must rise through the ranks to get to command positions. The
Time In Rank system is employed by most police departments and means that
before moving up the administrative ladder, an officer must spend a certain
amount of time in the next lowest rank. Although it promotes stability and
fairness and limits favoritism. It also protects police agencies from losing
talented officers trained at the public expense to other departments who offer
more money and incentives. The disadvantage of this system is that it restricts
administrative flexibility. In the limits of time in rank, the department would
be forced to hire an expert in a specialized field as a civilian employee
instead of within the police agency.
REF: p. 95 OBJ: 01
2. How
does the Hollywood version of policing differ from reality? Can you think of
some movies and television programs which most accurately portray the police?
ANS: Books, movies and tv shows romanticize police officers as
fearless crime fighters who think little of their own safety as they engage in
daily high speed chases and shootouts. In a more realistic and somewhat
accurate view, the shows Law and Order, NYPD blue, and Homicide portray many
police activities and investigations in a less romanticized version that
traditional Hollywood views. In addition, the HBO series “The Wire“ portrays a
seedy yet somewhat accurate portrayal of policing.
REF: p. 107 OBJ: 02
3. Explain
the major purposes of patrol and how patrols can be improved.
ANS:
Uniformed patrol officers are the backbone of the department and are the most
visible component of the entire criminal justice system. The purposes of patrol
include deterring crime by visible presence, maintaining public order,
responding quickly to law violations or emergencies, identifying and
apprehending law violators, aiding individuals who cannot help themselves,
facilitating the movement of traffic and people, and create a feeling of
community security. One way patrol can be improved is to ensure that officers
are able to continue their practice of selective enforcement and use their
discretion as they see fit.
REF: p. 96-97 OBJ: 03
4. Elaborate
on three reasons why investigations are often ineffective. What can be done to
improve investigations?
ANS: Detectives are often handicapped by limited time, money,
and resources to carry out lengthy ongoing probes of any but the most serious
cases. Investigations can be improved with technology such as searching
criminal histories and using forensic science such as DNA analysis to clear the
backlog of unsolved cases.
REF: p. 104 OBJ: 05
5. For
many years, preventive patrol has been considered one of the greatest
deterrents to criminal behavior. Discuss what the research from the Kansas City
study tells us about the relationship between prevention patrol and crime
deterrence.
ANS: There is little evidence that police patrol deters crime
and despite the number of patrol cars on the street and their visibility to
citizens it seems to have little impact on the crime rate.
REF: p. 98 OBJ: 04
6. Explain
the three key points to Wilson and Kelling’s broken windows model. Elaborate on
how the move to community policing reflects the move from a purely
crime-control model to one that encompasses elements of rehabilitation and
restorative justice.
ANS:
- Neighborhood
disorder creates fear
- Neighborhoods
give out crime-promoting signals
- Police
need citizen cooperation
Under the crime control model in deteriorated neighborhoods
there may be residents who are fearful, pessimistic, and despondent. Moving to
a model of community policing, the police presence deters crime in a preventive
manner and may encourage public confidence, strengthen feelings of safety, and
elicit cooperation from citizens.
REF: p. 99-100 OBJ: 04
7. Discuss
the concept of community policing. How effective have these programs been in
reducing crime and improving community-law enforcement relations?
ANS: Proactive policing such as foot patrol is the cornerstone
of community policing. There is empirical evidence that some community policing
efforts can reduce disorder and increase the perception of safety. A key
element of community policing philosophy is that citizens must participate with
police to fight crime. Community policing means the redesign of police
departments’ administration and management to focus on the problems of the
community, not on the needs of the department. Community policing works best in
neighborhoods that are not already saturated with crime and disorder but rather
show signs that deterioration is and will occur.
REF: p. 106-108 OBJ: 07
.
8. Compare
and contrast problem-oriented policing and community policing.
ANS:
Problem oriented policing is closely associated with, but independent from,
community policing and requires police agencies to identify particular
long-term community problems and to develop strategies to eliminate them. It
also requires police departments to rely on local residents and private
resources and is supported by fact that great deal of urban crime is
concentrated in a few “hot spots”. Community policing means the redesign of
police departments’ administration and management to focus on the problems of
the community, not on the needs of the department.
REF: p. 106-112 OBJ: 07 | 08
9. Discuss
the major problems of community policing strategies.
ANS: Some of the major problems with community policing
include;
8.
Defining community─ Police administrators must be able to define concept of
community as an ecological area defined by common norms, shared values, and
interpersonal bonds.
9.
Defining roles─ Police administrators must establish exact role of community
police agents.
10.
Changing supervisor attitudes─ Some supervisors are wary because it supports a
decentralized command structure.
11.
Reorienting police values─ Police with a traditional crime-control orientation
are less satisfied with community policing efforts than those who are
public-service oriented
12.
Revise training─ Training must reflect a community organizer role.
13.
Reorient recruitment─ Midlevel managers must be recruited and trained to be
receptive to and able to implement community-change strategies.
REF: p. 108-109 OBJ: 07
10.
Define forensics and discuss what forensic experts can
contribute to police agencies and investigations.
ANS: Forensic means “pertaining to the law,” and forensic
scientists perform comprehensive chemical and physical analyses on evidence
submitted by law enforcement agencies. It provides for accurate and scientific
development and examination of evidence. Without forensics evidence may
go undetected or be undervalued. The more accurate and finite results bolster
case credibility and may serve to support or erode probable cause—resulting in
more
REF: p. 106 OBJ: 10
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