Ethical Legal Issues Canadian Nursing 3rd Edition by neial B.Smith-Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Test

Keatings: Ethical and Legal Issues in Canadian Nursing, 3rd Edition

 

Chapter 3: Ethics Resources for Nurses

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.    Which of the following was a focus of codes of ethics during earlier nursing times?

a.

Professional standards

b.

Practice standards

c.

The scope of practice standards

d.

The virtue and morality of nurses

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: The virtue, character, and morality of nurses were the focus of early nursing codes of ethics, in addition to key principles that guided nursing practice.

 

Incorrect A: Professional standards have evolved in the current Code; they were not a focus of historical codes of ethics.

Incorrect B: Practice standards were not a part of historical codes of ethics and are not part of the modern Code. Practice standards set out requirements related to specific aspects of registered nurses’ practice.

Incorrect C: The scope of practice standards were not a part of historical codes of ethics and are not part of the modern Code. Scope of practice standards articulate standards, limits, and conditions related to the scope of practice of registered nurses and nurse practitioners.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 62

 

2.    Which of the following is true of the Canadian Nurses Association’s Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses?

a.

It offers suggestions on resolving routine practice issues.

b.

It contains a dispute resolution mechanism.

c.

It offers a framework and guide for ethical practice.

d.

It is closely aligned with the physician’s code of ethics.

 

 

ANS:  C

Correct C: The Code contains nursing values and ethical responsibilities, as well as ethical endeavours, all of which guide and frame ethical reflection and decision making in nursing practice.

 

Incorrect A: Practice issues are not discussed in the Code; these are regulatory body issues.

Incorrect B: Dispute resolution mechanisms are part of a collective agreement, not a code of ethics.

Incorrect D: There may be similarities between the two codes because they are both informed by ethical principles; however, there is no alignment between these two codes.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Application           REF:   p. 63

 

3.    Which primary value from the CNA Code of Ethics is being followed by a nurse who intervenes to address an unsafe nursing practice?

a.

Being accountable

b.

Providing safe, compassionate, competent, and ethical care

c.

Promoting justice

d.

Promoting health and well-being

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: Nurses question and intervene to address unsafe, noncompassionate, unethical, or incompetent practice or conditions that interfere with their ability to provide safe, compassionate, competent, and ethical care.

 

Incorrect A: Nurses are accountable for their actions and answerable for their practice, but this is not directly related to the situation mentioned above.

Incorrect C: Nurses uphold justice by safeguarding human rights, equality, and fairness and by promoting the public good, but this is not directly related to the situation mentioned above.

Incorrect D: Nurses help people attain their highest possible level of health and well-being, but this is not directly related to the situation mentioned above.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Application           REF:   p. 64

 

4.    Which primary ethical nursing value is being followed by a nurse who respects the wishes of a patient to decline to receive information about her health condition?

a.

Promoting and respecting informed decision making

b.

Preserving dignity

c.

Being accountable

d.

Promoting health and well-being

 

 

ANS:  A

Correct A: Nurses promote autonomy and self-determination in patients, allowing them to make their own choices.

 

Incorrect B: Nurses recognize and respect the intrinsic worth of each person, but this is not directly related to the patient’s decision making.

Incorrect C: Nurses are individually accountable for their own practice, but this does not have a direct impact on the decisions of the patient.

Incorrect D: Nurses help people attain their highest possible level of health and well-being. This is an important aspect of a patient’s decision making; however, it does not directly involve patient autonomy.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Application           REF:   p. 67

 

5.    Which of the following statements best describes the “ethical responsibilities” in the CNA Code of Ethics?

a.

Ethical responsibility deals with ethical endeavours.

b.

Nurses’ ethical responsibilities are informed by seven primary values.

c.

Social justice must be addressed consistently.

d.

Primary nursing values outline caring responsibilities.

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: The seven primary values in Part I of the Code inform nurses’ ethical responsibilities, which help guide nurses’ decision making.

 

Incorrect A: Ethical endeavours describe approaches nurses may take to address broader societal inequalities, but they are not directly linked with nurses’ ethical responsibilities.

Incorrect C: Broader societal inequalities may be addressed by approaches promoted by the Code’s ethical endeavours, but this statement is not a description of ethical responsibilities.

Incorrect D: Primary nursing values, which include ethical responsibilities, do not strictly outline these responsibilities.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 63

 

6.    Which of the following rationales explains the development of the ethical endeavours section of the CNA Code of Ethics?

a.

Nurses are expanding their advocacy role.

b.

Canadians have become more diverse and have different health care needs.

c.

Nurses work with more “English as a second language” clients.

d.

Health resources are increasingly scarce.

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: Canadians have become more diverse and have different health care needs. Nurses today work with the homeless, within the military, and with new immigrants to Canada. Increased numbers of immigrants, for instance, are at risk of deteriorating health as part of the transition to living in Canadian society.

 

Incorrect A: Although advocacy is required, this is not the rationale that explains the development of the ethical endeavours section of the Code.

Incorrect C: This may be true, but it is not the rationale that explains the development of the ethical endeavours section of the Code.

Incorrect D: Appropriate use and distribution of resources is important; however, this was not the primary reason for the development of the ethical endeavours section of the Code.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 76

 

7.    Which of the following statements best describes the intended result of the ethical decision-making process?

a.

There must only be one possible outcome.

b.

There must be several equally acceptable options.

c.

The goal is to discuss options, not decisions.

d.

More than one proposed intervention may be ethical.

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: More than one proposed intervention may be ethical and reflective of good ethical practice.

 

Incorrect A: Several possible outcomes should be examined in the ethical decision-making process.

Incorrect B: Acceptable options may not be equal in value to all parties, so this is not the intended result of the ethical decision-making process.

Incorrect C: This is not the goal of the ethical decision-making process.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 78

 

8.    Which of the following is being used by an interdisciplinary team that implements and evaluates a plan of action after considering key players, clarifying values, and exploring alternatives?

a.

A code of ethics

b.

An ethics committee

c.

Practice standards

d.

An ethical decision-making model

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: The process described is standard in ethical decision-making models.

 

Incorrect A: A code of ethics helps inform ethical decision making but does not directly guide the process described.

Incorrect B: An ethics committee may be involved in the ethical decision-making process but not the entire process as described.

Incorrect C: Practice standards may be part of the discussion when exploring alternatives but are not involved in the entire process described.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Analysis                REF:   pp. 78–79

 

9.    Which of the following best describes the goals of an ethics committee?

a.

To provide a single view toward the outcome of an ethical issue

b.

To present various views or “lenses” on the issues

c.

To develop standards of practice for nurses

d.

To ensure that comfort is achieved

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: Ethics committees present various views of or “lenses” on the issues, and there can be more than one alternative outcome.

 

Incorrect A: This statement does not describe the goals of an ethics committee.

Incorrect C: Standards of practice are the responsibility of the regulatory body.

Incorrect D: Comfort may be a goal of care that is considered, but, depending on the situation, the key players, and the other goals being considered, may not be the result.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   pp. 79–80

 

10.  Which of the following is a nurse demonstrating if he takes an unresolved ethical situation forward to an ethics committee?

a.

Nonmaleficence

b.

Beneficence

c.

Accountability

d.

Promoting justice

 

 

ANS:  C

Correct C: Being accountable is one of the primary nursing values in the CNA Code of Ethics. This nurse is demonstrating responsibility and accountability.

 

Incorrect A: Nonmaleficence means to do no harm. This may be one aspect of what this nurse is doing, but it does not directly describe his actions.

Incorrect B: Beneficence means to always do good. This may be one aspect of what this nurse is doing, but it does not directly describe his actions.

Incorrect D: Not enough is known about this situation to determine if promoting justice is involved.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Synthesis               REF:   p. 73

 

11.  What is the main role of an ethics committee?

a.

Consultation

b.

Education

c.

Policy

d.

All of the above

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: Ethics committees offer suggestions but do not direct care decisions. Educating staff on ethical issues is a key responsibility. Changing technologies require the need for evolving policies and guidelines around everyday ethical issues, and the committee is the expert opinion on these matters.

 

Incorrect A: Ethics committees offer suggestions but do not direct care decisions. Educating staff on ethical issues is a key responsibility. Changing technologies require the need for evolving policies and guidelines around everyday ethical issues, and the committee is the expert opinion on these matters.

Incorrect B: Ethics committees offer suggestions, but do not direct care decisions. Educating staff on ethical issues is a key responsibility. Changing technologies require the need for evolving policies and guidelines around everyday ethical issues, and the committee is the expert opinion on these matters.

Incorrect C: Ethics committees offer suggestions, but do not direct care decisions. Educating staff on ethical issues is a key responsibility. Changing technologies require the need for evolving policies and guidelines around everyday ethical issues, and the committee is the expert opinion on these matters.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 80

 

12.  Who of the following is likely to be a member of a hospital ethics committee?

a.

Funeral director

b.

Chaplain

c.

Community activist

d.

Palliative care volunteer

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: Chaplains are often part of an ethics committee. The committee is usually made up of professional staff with a certain level of experience in and knowledge of ethical issues.

 

Incorrect A: Funeral directors are not involved in patient care.

Incorrect C: Community members might be on the occasional ethics committee, but activists are not likely to be included, as they may be advancing a specific cause or agenda (e.g., the right to assisted suicide).

Incorrect D: Volunteers may know the patients but may not have the educational background to be able to participate on the ethics committee.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 81

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1.    Ethical principles inform only modern codes of ethics.

 

ANS:  F

Correct: Ethical principles have been documented as far back as 1780 B.C. and form the basis of both historical and modern codes of ethics.

 

Incorrect: This is not a true statement.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Knowledge            REF:   p. 58

 

2.    A code of ethics identifies disciplinary actions and resulting consequences for nurses who are investigated for misconduct.

 

ANS:  F

Correct: A professional body normally implements discipline and consequences.

 

Incorrect: A code of ethics establishes a standard by which the nurse is assessed if disciplinary or legal action against the nurse occurs; it does not identify disciplinary actions and resulting consequences.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 61

 

Keatings: Ethical and Legal Issues in Canadian Nursing, 3rd Edition

 

Chapter 4: The Canadian Legal System

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.    When a legal decision is being made, which of the following sources of common law has the highest degree of authority?

a.

Doctrine

b.

Case law

c.

Statute law and regulations

d.

Custom

 

 

ANS:  C

Correct C: Statute law and regulations are the most authoritative source of common law.

 

Incorrect A: Doctrine, the opinion of a legal expert, does not have the highest degree of authority.

Incorrect B: Case law is dependent on the level of the court that renders the decision and does not have the highest degree of authority.

Incorrect D: Custom has the lowest level of authority and is used only when there is a complete absence of guidance from other sources.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Synthesis               REF:   p. 90

 

2.    Which of the following is being done by a judge who is attempting to determine negligence by applying principles from previous precedents and elaborating on them before making a decision?

a.

Naming a litigant

b.

Developing common law

c.

Developing civil law

d.

Preparing the case for the superior court

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: Centuries of judgements, precedents, and previous cases all build on each other to form common law. The judge in this example is developing common law.

 

Incorrect A: This does not describe what this judge is doing. A litigant is a party to a lawsuit.

Incorrect C: This does not describe what this judge is doing. Civil law uses a civil code to guide all decisions.

Incorrect D: This is not applicable.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Analysis                REF:   p. 91

 

3.    Which of the following statements accurately describes statute law?

a.

A set of reasons for a decision in a particular case based on decisions made in previous cases

b.

A formal written set of rules passed by a legislative body

c.

The absence of specific and applicable legal principles

d.

A system of rules and doctrines developed over time

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: Statute law is a formal written set of rules passed by a parliament or other legislative body to regulate a particular area, such as Ontario’s Regulated Health Professions Act (1991), which regulates all of the health professions in Ontario.

 

Incorrect A: This statement describes case law, not statute law. Case law is a body of precedent that contains rules, definitions of legal concepts, and legal principles fashioned by judges over time.

Incorrect C: This statement describes custom, not statute law. Custom means that in the absence of specific and applicable legal principles in case law, statutes, or doctrine, the courts will be guided by the long-standing practices of a particular industry, trade, or other endeavour.

Incorrect D: This statement describes common law, not statute law.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Knowledge            REF:   p. 89

 

4.    Which of the following statements regarding the priority of a regulation is accurate?

a.

An act is inferior to the regulation from which it flows.

b.

The regulation is considered a guideline.

c.

A regulation is known as subordinate legislation.

d.

A regulation is known as inordinate legislation.

 

 

ANS:  C

Correct C: A regulation is additional legislative detail written to assist in explaining a statute or act and its application. Thus, regulations are known as subordinate legislation, and the regulation is inferior to the act from which the regulation flows; the statute takes priority.

 

Incorrect A: This is not an accurate statement.

Incorrect B: This is not an accurate statement. Regulations are more than a guideline, and they have the same force of law as statutes or acts.

Incorrect D: “Inordinate” means excessive, or disorderly, and is irrelevant with regard to regulations and legislation.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Application           REF:   p. 97

 

5.    Which of the following is the most accurate description of jurisprudence in the Quebec legal system?

a.

A body of precedent in Canadian common law that is superior to the civil code

b.

A body of precedent in Quebec common law that is superior to the civil code

c.

A body of precedent in the Canadian civil system that is inferior to the civil code

d.

A body of precedent in the Quebec civil system that is inferior to the civil code

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: Jurisprudence is a body of precedent used in Quebec civil law. It is merely evidence of how previous courts have treated a particular provision of the Civil Code of Quebec and is subordinate to the Code and not binding on a subsequent court.

 

Incorrect A: Common law does not use a civil code.

Incorrect B: Quebec does not use common law.

Incorrect C: In Canada, only Quebec has a civil law system; the rest of Canada is based on a common law system. The civil code is part of civil law.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 98

 

6.    Which of the following is the feature of justice that encompasses the notion that all people are equal before the law and entitled to the same rights and benefits?

a.

Procedural fairness

b.

Due process

c.

Natural justice

d.

Rule of law

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: Due process is the feature of justice that encompasses the notion that all people are equal before the law and entitled to the same rights and benefits arising from the law.

 

Incorrect A: Procedural fairness means that all individuals are treated fairly and consistently; it does not directly relate to the notion described.

Incorrect C: Natural justice refers to what is fair and good in human relationships; it does not directly relate to the notion described.

Incorrect D: The rule of law means that those responsible for administering and enforcing laws will do so appropriately; it does not directly relate to the notion described.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Knowledge            REF:   p. 102

 

7.    A nurse named in a lawsuit is involved in a preparatory legal proceeding where it becomes apparent that the opponent has enough evidence to prove the case. What is this preparatory meeting called?

a.

Documentary discovery

b.

Examination for discovery

c.

Pretrial conference

d.

Disclosure

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: During examination for discovery, each party has the opportunity to answer questions relevant to any matter raised, in the presence of both parties’ lawyers. No judge is present at this stage.

 

Incorrect A: Documentary discovery is the process used to prove that the parties involved have disclosed all relevant documents; it is not the preparatory meeting described.

Incorrect C: A pretrial conference is one last effort before the trial to resolve the dispute; it is not the preparatory meeting described.

Incorrect D: Disclosure is achieved through two mechanisms: documentary discovery and the oral examination for discovery; it is not the preparatory meeting described.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Synthesis               REF:   p. 105

 

8.    Which of the following statements accurately describes an indictable offence?

a.

A “wrong” committed against another person under common law

b.

A less serious type of criminal offence

c.

The most serious type of offence under common law

d.

The most serious type of criminal offence

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: An indictable offence is the most serious type of criminal offence. Murder in the first degree is an example of an indictable offence.

 

Incorrect A: This “wrong” is known as a tort, not an indictable offence.

Incorrect B: A criminal offence of a minor or relatively less serious nature is known as a summary conviction offence, not an indictable offence.

Incorrect C: An indictable offence falls under criminal law, not common law.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Knowledge            REF:   p. 107

 

9.    Which of the following is considered an administrative tribunal?

a.

A collective bargaining team

b.

A nurses’ association review board

c.

An appellate court

d.

A trial court

 

 

ANS:  B

Correct B: This review board would be considered an administrative tribunal. Administrative tribunals are not courts in the strict sense, though the adjudication is based on the respective rights and obligations of the parties who come before them.

 

Incorrect A: A collective bargaining team is not a tribunal.

Incorrect C: An appellate court is an appeals court and is the highest level of provincial court, not a tribunal.

Incorrect D: A trial court is provincial court, not a tribunal.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Synthesis               REF:   p. 114

 

10.  Which of the following statements is the most accurate with regard to the impact of an appeal of a judgment to an appellate court?

a.

A new trial with new witnesses will be involved.

b.

It must be referred to a higher provincial court.

c.

The matter must be referred to the trial court.

d.

No new witnesses will be called.

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: In an appeal to an appellate court, there is no new trial, only a review of the trial proceedings. There are no new witnesses called, and new evidence is seldom heard. The appeal ensures no errors of law were made and that findings of fact are based on properly admitted evidence.

 

Incorrect A: There is no new trial in this appeal, only a review of the trial proceedings.

Incorrect B: There is no higher provincial court after the appellate court. The matter must be referred to the Supreme Court of Canada, which is the final court of appeal.

Incorrect C: Trial courts are provincial, and subordinate to the appellate court. The matter must be referred to the Supreme Court of Canada, which is the final court of appeal.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Analysis                REF:   p. 115

 

11.  What are the two primary sources of common law?

a.

Statute law and custom law

b.

Doctrine and statute law

c.

Civil code and case law

d.

Case law and statute law

 

 

ANS:  D

Correct D: Statute law (a formal written set of rules) and case law (a collection of legal rules and principles based on precedent) make up the foundation for common law.

 

Incorrect A: Custom applies if no other sources of law are available, and is not a primary source of law.

Incorrect B: Doctrine is a legal opinion that may be considered, but is not a primary source of law.

Incorrect C: Civil code is not applicable to common law.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 89

 

12.  Which of the following are the three components of Canada’s government?

a.

The judicial branch, the executive branch, and the legislative branch

b.

The parliamentary branch, the Supreme Court, and the Commonwealth Doctrine

c.

The Commonwealth Doctrine, the executive branch, and the judicial branch

d.

The Court of Appeal, the Queen, and all statute laws

 

 

ANS:  A

Correct A: The three components of Canada’s government are the judicial branch, or the court system; the executive branch, or the Queen and her ministers, who enforce the law; and the legislative branch, which consists of Parliament and the provincial legislatures.

 

Incorrect B: The Commonwealth Doctrine does not exist.

Incorrect C: The Commonwealth Doctrine does not exist.

Incorrect D: These are parts of the components, but not the components themselves.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   pp. 93–94

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1.    Civil law is a component of common law.

 

ANS:  F

Correct: Civil law is a different system of law than common law. Civil law is based on formally written, or codified, legal rules and principles. The majority of common law, unlike civil law, is not formally written down or codified. The rules and principles in common law are contained in an extensive body of precedent.

 

Incorrect: This is not a true statement.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 89

 

2.    A superior court, based on common law, must use the same principles and rules as an inferior court to decide a case with similar circumstances.

 

ANS:  F

Correct: An inferior court, based on common law, must use the same principles and rules as a superior court to decide a case with similar circumstances. An inferior court (usually a trial court) is judicially subordinate to a superior court or an appellate (appeal) court in the hierarchical court structure. The superior court sets the precedent. This is known as the doctrine of stare decisis (“to abide by the decision”).

 

Incorrect: This is not a true statement.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Analysis                REF:   p. 92

 

3.    Provincial or territorial laws, known as statute laws, take priority over common law.

 

ANS:  T

Correct: Statute laws are passed by Parliament or provincial or territorial legislatures, whereas common law is set by the courts over time. Statute laws take priority over common law and may confirm, clarify, alter, limit, or rescind common law as determined by the courts.

 

Incorrect: This statement is true.

 

DIF:    Cognitive level: Comprehension     REF:   p. 94

 

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